102 Bài Đọc Hiểu Tiếng Anh Từ Các Trường Chuyên

" 102 Bài Đọc Hiểu Tiếng Anh Từ Các Trường Chuyên 🔙 Quay lại trang tải sách pdf ebook 102 Bài Đọc Hiểu Tiếng Anh Từ Các Trường Chuyên Ebooks Nhóm Zalo 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 1 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TIẾNG ANH TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN (CÓ ĐÁP ÁN - GIẢI CHI TIẾT) 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that bestfits each ofthe numbered blanks from 1 to 5 Left-handers are the odd ones out. Sure, lefties (1) up about 10 percent of the population - but, frankly, it seems like society has forgotten about them. Just consider all of the right handed gadgets, awkwardly designed desks, and cooking tools that fit comfortably only in your right hand. What (2) points to a complex (3) someone to become a lefthand? Scientists aren‟t exactly sure, but research between genes and environment While no exact set of “leftie genes” have been discovered, people who dominantly use their left hands do have more left-handed family members. And researchers have found different brain wirings in righties vs. lefties. But no matter (4) it is that drives someone to use their antipodal paw, science has also uncovered a particular set of personality traits that left-handed people tend to have. So for all of you lefties, leftie-loving righties, and ambidextrous folks out there - it‟s time to brush up on your left-handed knowledge and help (5) an end to leftie discrimination once and for all. Question 1: A. consist B. account C. hold D. make Question 2: A. causes B. makes C. gets D. does Question 3: A. collaborate B. collaboration C. collaborating D. collaborated Question 4: A. which B. who C. what D. that Question 5: A. put B. bring C. make D. take 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 6 to 12. Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview before reading. Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it (which often needs jumping forward or backward to process information). They also relate important points to one another. Also, they activate and use their prior knowledge. When they realize that their understanding is not good, they do not wait to change strategies. Last, they can monitor understanding and take action to correct or “fix up” mistakes in comprehension. Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective study skills. They tend to assume a passive role, in learning and rely on others (e.g., teachers, parents) to monitor their studying, for example, low-achieving students often do not monitor their understanding of content; they may not be aware of the purpose of studying; and they show little evidence of looking back, or employing “fix-up” strategies to fix understanding problems. Students who struggle with learning new information seem to be unaware that they must extent effort beyond simply reading the content to understand and remember it. Children with learning disabilities do not plan and judge the quality of their studying. Their studying may be disorganized. Students with learning problems face challenges with personal organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping track of materials and assignments, following directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good studiers who employ a variety of study skills in a flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving students use a restricted range of study skills. They cannot explain why good study strategies are important for learning; and they tend to use the same, often ineffective study approach for all learning tasks, ignoring task content, structure or difficulty. (Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUI Galway) 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 2 Question 6: What is the topic of the passage? A. Successful and low-academic achieving students B. Successful learners and their learning strategies C. Study skills for high school students D. Effective and ineffective ways of learning Question 7: The word “prior” in the first paragraph is closest meaning to _ ? A. important B. earlier C. forward D. good Question 8: According to the passage, what can be learnt about passive students? A. They depend on other people to organize their learning B. They are slow in their studying C. They monitor their understanding D. They know the purpose of studying Question 9: Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying? A. Being aware of the purpose of studying B. Monitoring their understanding of content C. Fixing up mistakes in understanding D. Looking at their backs Question 10: According to the passage, to learn new information, low-achieving students do NOT . A. just understand it B. relate it to what they have known C. simply remember it D. read it Question 11: In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use . A. aimless study techniques B. various study skills C. restricted strategies D. inflexible study ways Question 12: The underlined pronoun “They” in the last sentence refers to . A. study strategies B. study skills C. low-achieving students D. good studiers 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 13 to 20 Pollution emitted in industrial areas represents a threat to human health and the surrounding natural resources. We have a tendency to believe that the production processes are the only source of environmental damage, and often forget about the possible long-term effects of harmful production practices. We may think that the closure of these huge industrial areas would improve the quality of the environment. Unfortunately, this ignores the threat of the remaining waste, which is abandoned and poorly stored. It represents an even bigger danger because it stands neglected as it degrades and leaks into the earth without any control at all. Changes in the water chemistry due to surface water contamination can affect all levels of an ecosystem. It can affect the health of lower food chain organisms and, consequently, the availability of food up through the food chain. It can damage the health of wetlands and damage their ability to support healthy ecosystems, control flooding, and filter pollutants from storm water runoff. The health of animals and humans are affected when they drink or bathe in contaminated water. In addition water-based organisms, like fish and shellfish, can pile up and concentrate contaminants in their bodies. When other animals or humans eat these organisms, they receive a much higher dose of contaminant than they would have if they had been directly exposed to the original contamination. Contaminated groundwater can badly affect animals, plants and humans if it is removed from 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 3 the ground by manmade or natural processes. Depending on the study of rocks of the area, groundwater may rise to the surface through springs or seeps, flow sideways into nearby rivers, streams, or ponds, or sink deeper into the earth. In many parts of fhe world, groundwater is pumped out of the ground to be used for drinking, bathing, other household uses, agriculture, and industry. Contaminants in the soil can harm plants when they take up the contamination through their roots. Eating, breathing in, or touching contaminated soil, as well as eating plants or animals that have piled up soil contaminants can badly affect the health of humans and animals. Air pollution can cause breathing-related problems and other bad health effects as contaminants are absorbed from the lungs into other parts of the body. Certain air contaminants can also harm animals and humans when they contact the skin. Plants rely on breathing for their growth and can also be affected by exposure to contaminants moved in the air. Question 13: What is the topic of the passage? A. Sources of environmental damage B. The pollution from the city C. Bad effects of industrial waste D. The quality of the environment Question 14: According to the passage, the industry is likely to be thought as_ . A. a danger to the environment B. the only source of pollution C. the utmost harmful activity D. a threat to human health Question 15: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to . A. the remaining waste B. a danger C. the environment D. the threat of the remaining waste Question 16: Which of the followings affect an ecosystem as the whole? A. Surface water contamination B. Soil contamination C. Groundwater contamination D. Air contamination Question 17: According to the passage, which of the followings supports healthy ecosystems? A. Lower food chain organisms B. Animals C. Water-based organisms D. Wetlands Question 18: Which of the followings is NOT badly affected by contaminated groundwater? A. Human B. Plants C. Rocks D. Animals Question 19: Which of the followings is the flow of water from the ground to the surface? A. Streams B. Ponds C. Rivers D. Springs Question 20: Which of the followings has the closest meaning to the word “absorbed” in the last paragraph? A. Consumed B. Taken in C. Swallowed D. Piled up 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Understanding India's Caste System It has been said that life is what we make of it. In other words, if we work hard and focus on our goals, we can have great careers and enjoy high status is society. However, these opportunities don‟t exist for everyone. In some places, the family you are born into will decide almost everything about your life. India‟s caste system is an example of this. The caste system is a major part of the Hindu religion that has existed for thousands of years. It is a way of organizing and grouping people based on the occupation of the family. Castes will determine 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 4 whom people can socialize with and their place in society. Originally, a person‟s caste was supposed to be determined by their personality, but over time it has been linked to their job and family. There are four classes, also known as varnas, in India‟s caste system. The highest one is Brahmin. People in this class have jobs in education and religion. These are seen as extremely important functions for the society as they deal with the knowledge. The second highest level is the Kshatriya, or ruling class. People from this group can be soldiers, landowners, or have jobs in politics. The class beneath this is the Vaishya. These people often work in the commercial sector as merchants. The fourth class level is the Shudra. Shudras typically work as unskilled labourers doing factory or farm work, or they may also be employed as artists. There is another group, the Harijan, that is at the bottom and considered to be outside of the caste system. For many years, they were known as Untouchables, people from this caste held the most undesirable jobs in society, such as cleaning up garbage. Furthermore, they weren‟t allowed to pray at public temples or drink water from the same wells as other classes. If someone from another caste came into contact with an Untouchable, they were considered dirty and would be expected to bathe vigorously to clean themselves. Although the caste system still exists in India, the government is taking steps to improve the living conditions and decrease unemployment rates for the Shudras and Harijan. This includes providing better health care, offering literacy programmes, and making sure that people from higher social classes do not exploit them. It seems unlikely that the caste system will disappear any time soon, but the overall conditions for those at the bottom do seem to be improving. 21. Which of the following is not true about India‟s caste system? A. The caste system has been used in India for a long time. B. The Kshatriya is the second highest class. C. Hard work helps people move up in the caste system. D. It is possible that a Shudra would work on a farm. 22. The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to . A. the fact that your origin will mostly decide your future B. the pleasure of life in India C. the India‟s caste system existing for thousands of years D. the major part of the Hindu religion 23. What is the caste system mainly based on? A. What a person believes on B. When a person starts school C. Who a person‟s parents are D. Where a person was born 24. What kind of job would a Brahmin likely have? A. A priest B. A warrior C. An inventor D. A painter 25. What could replace the word “ruling” in paragraph 3? 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 5 A. defeating B. guessing C. delaying D. governing 26. All of the following are true about the Harijan EXCEPT that . A. they used to be known as Untouchables B. they had to do undesirable jobs in society C. any contact between someone from another caste with an Untouchable was considered unacceptable D. anyone from another caste coming to contact with an Untouchable is not allowed to pray at temples 27. What does the passage suggest about the future of the caste system? A. One day soon it won‟t be used anymore in India. B. It is probably going to get worse before it gets better. C. The bottom groups will rise to rule over the top classes. D. It will likely continue to exist for a long time in India. 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions. Throughout the world there are different ways for people to greet each other. In much of the world, a handshake is the (28) _ form of welcoming and greeting someone. In many countries around the Mediterranean Sea a (29) kiss on the cheek is the appropriate way to welcome friends and family. It can be a very (30) surprise if you expect to shake hands and get a kiss or a hug instead. At times, it is difficult to tell what sort of greeting (31) is followed. People may bow, grab another‟s arm or even slap the other person on the back. In some places people just smile, look at the other‟s face and say nothing. Most people in the world are tolerant of visitors and don‟t mind what travellers do that seems wrong as long as the visitors are (32) . A big part of the delightfulness of world travel is experiencing different customs. 28. A.different B.unique C.common D.same 29. A.light B.superficial C.fast D.heavy 30. A.huge B.large C.big D.great 31. A.habit B.routine C.custom D.tradition 32. A.sincere B.truthful C.faithful D.hopeful 6: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions Humans have struggled against weeds since the beginnings of agriculture. Marring our gardens is one of the milder effects of weeds – any plants that thrive where they are unwanted. They clog waterways, destroy wildlife habitats, and impede farming. Their spread eliminates grazing areas and 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 6 accounts for one-third of all crop loss. They compete for sunlight, nutrients, and water with useful plants. The global need for weed control had been answered mainly by the chemical industry. Its herbicides are effective and sometimes necessary, but some pose serious problems, particularly if misused. Toxic compounds threaten animal and public health when they accumulate in food plants, groundwater, and drinking water. They also harm workers who apply them. In recent years, the chemical industry has introduced several herbicides that are more ecologically sound. Yet new chemicals alone cannot solve the world‟s weed problems. Hence, scientists are exploring the innate weed-killing powers of living organisms, primarily insects and microorganisms. The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans. They can be chosen for their ability to attack selected targets and leave crops and other plants untouched. In contrast, some of the most effective chemicals kill virtually all the plants they come in contact with, sparing only those that are naturally resistant or have been genetically modified for resistance. Furthermore, a number of biological agents can be administered only once, after which no added applications are needed. Chemicals typically must be used several times per growing season. 33. With what topic does this passage primarily deal? A. The dangers of toxic chemicals. B. A proposal to ban the use of all herbicides. C. The importance of the chemical industry. D. Advantages of biological agents over chemical ones. 34. The word „marring‟ in bold is closest in meaning to A. planting B. spoiling C. dividing D. replacing 35. The word „clog‟ in bold is closest in meaning to A. drain B. grow along C. obstruct D. float on 36. Which of the following terms does the author define in the first paragraph? A. grazing area B. weeds C. nutrients D. wildlife habitats 37. Which of the following statements about the use of chemical agents as herbicides would the author most likely agree? A. It has become more dangerous recently. B. It is occasionally required. C. It is safe but inefficient. D. It should be increased. 38. The word „innate‟ in bold is closest in meaning to A. effective B. natural C. active D. organic 39. The word „applications‟ in bold could best be replaced by which of the following? A. treatments B. requests C. special purposes D. qualifications 40. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? A. Two possible causes of a phenomenon are compared. B. A problem is described and possible solutions are discussed. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 7 C. A general idea is introduced and several specific examples are given. D. A recommendation is analysed and rejected 7: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 41 to 45 About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources. We (41) well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (42) of packaging and this constitutes about seven percent by weight, of our domestic(43) _ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(44) than coal and one methodn of “recovery” strongly (45) by plastic manufacturers if the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel. Question 41. A. consign B. import C. consume D. remove Question 42. A. form B. way C. type D. kind Question 43. A. goods B. refuse C. rubble D. requirements Question 44. A. effect B. degree C. value D. demand Question 45. A. argued B. presented C. desired D. favored 8: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 51. FIRST TIME IN THE AIR When John Mills was going to fly in an aeroplane for the first time, he was frightened. He did not like the idea of being thousands of feet up in the air. “ I also didn't like the fact that I wouldn't be in control,” says John. “I'm a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to so. It drives everybody crazy.” However John couldn't avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his grandchildren in Canada. “I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn't let my son, his wife and their three children travel all the way here to visit me. It would be so expensive for them and I know Tom's business isn't doing so well at the moment – it would also be tiring for the children – it's a nine-hour flight!” he says. To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about aeroplanes. When he booked his seat, he was told that he would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. “I needed to know as much as possible before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of making myself feel 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 8 better. The Boeing 747 is the largest passenger aircraft in the world at the moment. The first one flew on February 9th 1969 in the USA. It can carry up to 524 passengers and 3.400 pieces of luggage. The fuel for aeroplanes is kept in the wings and the 747 is wings are so big that they can carry enough fuel for an average car to be able to travel 16,000 kilometres a year for 70 years. Isn't that unbelievable? Even though I had discovered all this very interesting information about the jumbo, when I saw it for the first time, just before I was going to travel to Canada, I still couldn't believe that something so enormous was going to get up in the air and fly. I was even more impressed when I saw how big it was inside with hundreds of people!” The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. “The take-off itself was much smoother than I expected although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end, I managed to relax, enjoy the food and watch one of the movies and the view from the window was spectacular. I even managed to sleep for a while! Of course,” continues John, “the best reward of all was when I arrived in Canada and saw my son and his family, particularly my beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so silly about all the years when I couldn't even think of getting on a plane. I had let my fear of living stop me from seeing the people I love most in the world. I can visit my son and family as often as I like now!” Question 46. Why did John Mills fly in an aeroplane? A. He wanted to go on holiday B. He wanted to try it. C. He wanted to see his family D. He had to travel on business. Question 47. Why did John read about aeroplane? A. He wanted to know how they work. B. It was his hobby. C. It made him feel safer. D. He had found a book on them. Question 48. What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time? A. He felt much safer. B. He liked the shape of it. C. He couldn‟t believe how big it was. D. He thought the wings were very small. Question 49. How did John feel when the aeroplane was taking off? A. excited B. happy C. sad D. frightened Question 50. What surprised John most about the flight? A. that he liked the food. B. that he was able to sleep C. that there was a movie being shown D. that the view was good Question 51. How did John feel about his fears in the end? A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid. B. He realized it was okay to be afraid. C. He hoped his grandchildren weren‟t afraid of flying. D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 9 9: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 52 to 34. Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by-product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it. Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection. Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased. Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as the way that we interact with each other Question 52: Which of the following is the author‟s main point? A. Hearing loss is America's number one nonfatal health problem. B. Loud noises signal danger. C. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health. D. The ear is not like the eye. Question 53: According to the passage, what is noise? A. A byproduct of technology. B. Physical and psychological harm C. Congestion.. D. Unwanted sound. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 10 Question 54: Why is noise difficult to measure? A. All people do not respond to it in the same way B. It causes hearing loss. C. It is unwanted. D. People become accustomed to it. Question 55: The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by . A. hazardous B. crowded C. polluted D. rushed Question 56: The word it in the first paragraph refers to . A. the quality of life B. advancing technology C. the noise D. physical and psychological harm Question 57: According to the passage, people respond to loud noises in the same way that they respond to . A. annoyance B. danger C. damage D. disease Question 58: Look at the verb accelerate in paragraph 3. Which of the following is the closest in meaning to . A. decrease B. alter C. increase D. release Question 59: The phrase as well in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _. A. after all B. instead C. also D. regardless Question 60: It can be inferred from the passage that the eye . A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise 10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 28. EXAMS OR CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT? How do you feel when you (61) an exam? Do you always succeed in getting all your ideas down on paper, or do you sometimes feel that you‟re (62) a mess of it? Apart from those lucky few who sail through exams, most secondary school (63) find them very stressful. Many teachers are aware of the problems their students face and use a different method for measuring their progress: continuous assessment. With continuous assessment, students are given various (64) to do through the year. All their marks are added together to produce a total mark at the end of the year. Students have to take more responsibility for their education because they can‟t rely on doing well on just one day. Also, they have more time to (65) over their work, meaning that they are able to do their best. Question 61: A. sit B. write C. make D. give 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 11 Question 62: A. doing B. making C. having D. taking Question 63: A. colleagues B. classmates C. perfects D. students Question 64: A. tasks B. efforts C. achievements D. results Question 65: A. consider B. imagine C. think D. examine 11. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 72. Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings. When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly. To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized. Question 66: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because . A. it has become very important in our culture. B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years. C. writing is secondary to language. D. people have been writing since there have been human beings. Question 67: The author of the passage argues that . A. all languages should have a written form. B. writing has become too important in today‟s society. C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write. D. speech is more basic to language than writing. Question 68: Normal human beings . A. learn to talk after learning to write. B. learn to write before learning to talk. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 12 C. learn to write and to talk at the same time. D. learn to talk before learning to write. Question 69: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of . A. severely handicapped children. B. people who learn the rudiments of speech. C. intelligent people who couldn‟t write. D. people who speak many languages. Question 70: According to the author, one mark of any civilized society isthat it . A. keeps written records. B. affirms the primacy of speech over writing. C. teaches its children to speak perfectly. D. affirms the primacy of writing over speech. Question 71: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means . A. skill B. rudiments C. domination D. benefit Question 72: Which of the following is NOT true? A. It is easy to acquire the writing skill. B. Writing has become so important in our culture. C. Writing represents speech, but not perfectly. D. Speech is essential but writing has important benefits. 12. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 73 to 80 If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael‟s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling. Winston Smith, Michael‟s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 13 Question 73: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to . A. push their child into trying too much. B. help their child to become a genius. C. make their child become a musician. D. neglect their child‟s education. Question 74: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents? A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents. C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists. Question 75: Michael Collins is fortunate in that . A. his father is a musician. B. his parents are quite rich. C. his parents help him in a sensible way. D. his mother knows little about music. Question 76: The phrase "crazy about" in in the paragraph 3 mostly means . A. surprised at B. extremely interested in C. completely unaware of D. confused about Question 77: Winston‟s parents push their son so much and he . A. has won a lot of piano competitions. B. cannot learn much music from them. C. has become a good musician. D. is afraid to disappoint them. Question 78: The word "They" in the paragraph 3 refers to . A. Michael‟s parents B.violin lessons C. parents in general D. concerts Question 79: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT . A. Winston‟s father B. Winston‟s mother C.Michael‟s father D. Michael‟s mother Question 80: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that . A. successful parents always have intelligent children. B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children. C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants. D. parents should spend more money on the child‟s education. 13. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks. I had never been to Denmark before, so when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I little suspected that by the end of the trip I'd have made such lasting friendships. Esjberg is a (81) port for a cyclist's arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track leads (82) town and down to Ribe, where I spent my first night. The only appointment I had to keep was a meeting with a friend who was flying out in June. I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would include several small islands and various parts of the countryside. In my (83) , a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and this trip was no (84) . On only my second day, I got into conversation with a cheerful man 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 14 who turned out to be the local baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his daughter inOdense. Within minutes, he had (85) for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me going and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful holiday. Question 81: A. capable B. ready C. favorable D. convenient Question 82: A. in to B. up ward C. out of D. upon Question 83: A. information B. experience C. knowledge D. observation Question 84: A. exception B. difference C. change D. contract Question 85: A. fixed B. ordered C. settled D. arranged 14. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees‟ homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn‟t telecommuting become more popular? Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager‟s responsibilities. It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office. Question 86: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? A. An overview of telecommuting B. The failure of telecommuting C. The advantages of telecommuting D. A definition of telecommuting Question 87: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting? A. More than predicted in Business Week B. More than 8 million 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 15 C. Fewer than last year D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today Question 88: The phrase “of no consequence” means . A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant Question 89: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting EXCEPT . A. the opportunities for advancement B. the different system of supervision C. the lack of interaction with a group D. the work place is in the home Question 90: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to . A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities Question 91: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees . A. need regular interaction with their families. B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office. C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office. D. are ignorant of telecommuting. Question 92: The word “reluctant” in line 13 can best be replaced by . A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical 15. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being in college. It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life‟s obstacle. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children‟s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social trends of today. How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don‟t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don‟t want our children to “suffer”. The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 16 the growing number of medicated adolescents today. Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don‟t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life. What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these students – the student who complains that the professor didn‟t remind her of the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism. As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood. Question 93: According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are . A. too ready for college B. not as mature C. not so academic D. responsible for their work Question 94: The word “handle” in parapgraph 2 mostly means . A. deal with B. gain benefits from C. lend a hand to D. point at Question 95: According to the writer, students‟ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to . A. the absence of parents‟ protection B. the lack of parental support C. the over-parenting from parents D. the lack of financial support Question 96: The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to . A. studying medicine at college B. doing medical research C. receiving medical treatment D. suffering anxiety from depression Question 97: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students. B. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. C. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation. D. Our society certainly doesn‟t want our children to experience unpleasant things. Question 98: Students who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life will need . A. to be assigned more housework from adults 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 17 B. to be given more social responsibilities C. to be encouraged to meet challenges D. daily coaching from their teachers Question 99: According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will . A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet B. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives C. defeat students from the very beginning D. discourage students and let them down forever Question 100: What is probably the writer‟s attitude in the passage? A. Praising B. Indifferent C. Humorous D. Critial 16. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word of phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 101 to 105. As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In this world of diversity, (101) such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher,etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to a financially successful life. (102) , the cost of education was not so high. Today‟s world is entirely different from the things (103) _ have just been described. The job market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (104) . Meanwhile, most teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well- organized career talks and student counseling workshop to guide and help teenagers (105) what course to take. Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students. Question 101: A. taking B. making C. giving D. having Question 102: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore Question 103: A. when B. that C. where D. what Question 104: A. competitively B. competition C. compete D. competitive Question 105: A. employ B. study C. decide D. apply 17: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 18 Living things include both the visible world of animals and plants as well as the invisible world of bacteria and viruses. On a basic level, we can say that life is ordered. Organisms have an enormously complex organization. Life can also “work”. Living creatures can take in energy from the environment. This energy, in the form of food, is changed to maintain metabolic processes and for survival. Life grows and develops. This means more than just getting larger in size. Living organisms also have the ability to rebuild and repair themselves when injured. Life can reproduce. Life can only come from other living creatures. Life can respond. Think about the last time you accidentally stubbed your toe. Almost instantly, you moved back in pain. Finally, life can adapt and respond to the demands placed on it by the environment. There are three basic types of adaptations that can occur in higher organisms. Reversible changes occur as a response to changes in the environment. Let's say you live near sea level and you travel to a mountainous area. You may begin to experience difficulty breathing and an increase in heart rate as a result of the change in height. These signs of sickness go away when you go back down to sea level. Body- related changes happen as a result of prolonged changes in the environment. Using the previous example, if you were to stay in the mountainous area for a long time, you would notice that your heart rate would begin to slow down and you would begin to breath normally. These changes are also reversible. Genotypic changes (caused by genetic change) take place within the genetic make up of the organism and are not reversible. An example would be the development of resistance to bug-killing chemicals by insects and spiders. Question 106: In what way is life organized?. A. Hard B. Difficult C. Complicated D. Problematic Question 107: Which of the followings is NOT a feature of life? A. Getting a job. B. Giving birth. C. Getting larger and self-repairing. D. Reacting to the environment. Question 108: What is the energy for the living things called? A. Food. B. Metabolic process. C. Green energy. D. Environment Question 109: You see life respond most clearly when you . A. unintentionally hurt yourself. B. move part of your body due to threat. C. look at your toe. D. feel hurt. Question 110: Which type of living creatures can adapt to the changes in the environment? A. More visible B. Lower C. Higher D. More human Question 111: What does the word “Reversible” in the passage mean? A. Changeable B. Visible C. Fitful D. Irregular 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 19 Question 112: Which type of adaptation is permanent? A. Body- related B. Reversible C. Genotypic D. Environmental 18. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means an endless party on a sunny beach in Florida or Mexico. In Panama City Beach, Florida, a city with a permanent population of around 36,000, more than half a million university students arrive during the month of March to play and party, making it the number one spring break destination in the United States. A weeklong drinking binge is not for anyone, however, and a growing number of American university students have found a way to make spring break matter. For them, joining or leading a group of volunteers to travel locally or internationally and work to alleviate problems such as poverty, homelessness, or environmental damage makes spring break a unique learning experience that university students can feel good about. During one spring break week, students at James Madison University in Virginia participated in 15 “alternative spring break” trips to nearby states, three others to more distant parts of the United States, and five international trips. One group of JMU students traveled to Bogalusa, Louisiana, to help rebuild homes damaged by Hurricane Katrina. Another group traveled to Mississippi to organize creative activities for children living in a homless shelter. One group of students did go to Florida, but not to lie on the sand. They performed exhausting physical labor such as maintaining hiking trails and destroying invasive plant species that threaten the native Florida ecosystem. Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very rewarding. While most university students have to get their degrees before they can start helping people, student volunteers are able to help people now. On the other hand, the accommodations are far from glamorous. Students often sleep on the floor of a school or spend the week camping in tents. But students only pay around $250 for meals and transportation, which is much less than some of their peers spend to travel to more traditional spring break hotspots. Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities across the United States. Students cite a number of reason for participating. Some appreciate the opportunity to socialize and meet new friends. Others want to exercise their beliefs about people‟s obligation to serve humanity and make the world a better place whatever their reason, these students have discovered something that gives them rich rewards along with a break from school work. (―Active Skills for Reading: Book 2‖ by Neil J.Anderson – Thompson, 2007) Question 113: How many university students travel to Panama Beach City every March for spring 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 20 break? A. Around 500,000 B. Around 10,000 C. Around 36,000 D. Around 50,000 Question 114: The article is mainly about . A. sleeping on the floor or camping in tents. B. alternative spring break trips. C. drinking problems among university students. D. spring break in Florida and Mexico Question 115: The word “binge” in the second paragraph probably means_ . A. having very little alcohol. B. refusing to do something. C. studying for too long. D. doing too much of something. Question 116: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that alternative spring break trips try to help solve? A. Alcoholism. B. Environmental damage. C. Poverty. D. Homelessness. Question 117: Which of the following gives the main idea of the third paragraph? A. One group of JMU students worked on homes damaged by a hurricane. B. Some students work to help the environment on alternative spring break trips. C. Children living in homeless shelters enjoy creative activities. D. University students do many different types of work on alternative spring break trips. Question 118: The article implies that university students . A. many take fewer alternative spring break trips in future. B. would prefer to wait until they have their degrees to start helping people. C. complain about accommodations on alternative spring break trips. D. spend more than $250 for traditional spring break trips. Question 119: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to . A. degrees B. projects C. people D. students Question 120: Which of the following is mentioned as a reason for participating in alternative spring break trips? A. The hope of earning money. B. A personal opinion that people must help other people. C. A desire to travel to glamorous places. D. A wish to get away from family and friends. 19. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many African 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 21 cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or highly traditional families. There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride's family has gone in order to raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a family member, since the bride will officially become a member of her husband's family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment for the fact that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children. The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know one another before the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride's family often works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families. Question 121: According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the bride price EXCEPT . A. its amount and form can vary B. its practice is occasionally only symbolic C. it is a relatively new practice in Africa D. it is generally higher among traditional families Question 122: Why does the author mention “the payment of money” in paragraph 1? A. To stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride price is most common. B. To demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price. C. To illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 22 D. To demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes. Question 123: The word "prominent" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to . A. educated B. important C. religious D. conservative Question 124: The phrase "The first" in paragraph 2 refers to the first . A. Marriage B. Bride price C. Payment D. Justification Question 125: It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that African families . A. never see their daughters after marriage B. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding ' C. place more value on men than women D. place great importance on childbirth Question 126: The author uses the word "marital" to indicate that the problems are related to . A. money B. law C. marriage D. pregnancy Question 127: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Sometimes the bride‟s family has to return the bride price to the groom‟s for equal distribution of wealth. B. The initial negotiations over the birde price provide opportunities for 2 families to meet each other. C. Animals are not an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride prices. D. Without having to pay the bride price, African men would not respect their family members. Question 128: Why are women often married to older men? A. Young men lack the financial to marry. B. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men. C. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter‟s marriage. D. Women live longer than men on average. 20. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks. SPORTS IN SOCIETY The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer seem to think of sports as „just a game‟ - to be watched or played for the (129) of enjoyment. Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies pay large sums of money to screen important matches or competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes, some of (130) are now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players. (131) , it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising products or making personal appearances. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 23 A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation industry that we now rely (132) to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part of that industry, providing for millions of (133) people all over the world. Question 129: A. advantage B. good C. benefit D. sake Question 130: A. whose B. whom C. who D. that Question 131: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. Therefore Question 132: A. for B. with C. on D. in Question 133: A. ordinary B. mighty C. extremist D. abnormal 21. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in thinking about the role of public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950's and 1960's on the schools. In the 1920's, but especially in the Depression conditions of the 1930's, the United States experienced a declining birth rate – every thousand women aged fifteen to forty-four gave birth to about 118 live children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in 1936, and 80 in 1940. With the growing prosperity brought on by the Second World War and the economic boom that followed it, young people married and established households earlier and began to raise larger families than had their predecessors during the Depression. Birth rates rose to 102 per thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950, and 118 in 1955. Although economics was probably the most important determinant, it is not the only explanation for the baby boom. The increased value placed on the idea of the family also helps to explain this rise in birth rates. The baby boomers began streaming into the first grade by the mid-1940's and became a flood by 1950. The public school system suddenly found itself overtaxed. While the number of schoolchildren rose because of wartime and postwar conditions, these same conditions made the schools even less prepared to cope with the flood. The wartime economy meant that few new schools were built between 1940 and 1945. Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that followed large numbers of teachers left their profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the economy. Therefore, in the 1950's and 1960's, the baby boom hit an antiquated and inadequate school system. Consequently, the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930's and early 1940's no longer made sense; that is, keeping youths aged sixteen and older out of the labor market by keeping them in school could no longer be a high priority for an institution unable to find space and staff to teach younger children aged five to sixteen. With the baby boom, the focus of educators and of laymen interested in 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 24 education inevitably turned toward the lower grades and back to basic academic skills and discipline. The system no longer had much interest in offering nontraditional, new, and extra services to older youths. Question 134: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Birth rates in the United States in the 1930's and 1940 B. The impact of the baby boom on public education C. The role of the family in the 1950's and 1960's D. The teaching profession during the baby boom Question 135: The word "it" in paragraph refers to . A. the economic boom B. the Second World War C. the 1930s D. the United States Question 136: The word "overtaxed" in line 14 is closest in meaning to . A. changed too much B. plentifully supplied C. heavily burdened D. well prepared Question 137: The public school of the 1950's and 1960's faced all of the following problems EXCEPT . A. an inadequate number of school buildings B. old-fashioned facilities C. a shortage of teachers D. a declining number of students Question 138: According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession after the outbreak of the war? A. Teaching positions were scarce. B. They were dissatisfied with the curriculum. C. Other jobs provided higher salaries. D. They needed to be retrained. Question 139: The word "inevitably" in parapraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. unavoidably B. impartially C. irrationally D. unwillingly Question 140: Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage? A. The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem presented in the first paragraph. B. The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph. C. The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first paragraph. D. The second paragraph presents the effect of circumstances described in the first paragraph. 22. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 141 to 145. CHESS Chess, often (141) to as the Royal Game, is the oldest of all board games which do not contain an element of chance. The origins of chess are uncertain, (142) there are a number of legends regarding its invention. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 25 One story says that it was King Solomon who invented chess, another that it was the Greek god Hermes, and yet another that the Chinese mandarin Han-Sing was responsible for its creation. In fact, chess almost certainly originated in India in the sixth or seventh century AD. The game‟s popularity then spread quickly through Persia (now known as Iran) and from there came to Europe. The first documented reference to chess in literature is in a Persian romance which was written about 600 AD. It is (143) the word „chess‟ comes from „shah‟, the Persian word for „king‟ and that „checkmate‟, the game‟s winning (144) , comes from the phrase „shah mat‟, (145) „the king is dead‟. The rules and pieces used in the game have undergone changes over the centuries. Modem chess owes much to the Spaniard Lopez de Segura, who in 1561 wrote the first book on how to play the game. In it, he introduced the concept of „castling‟, which had not been part of the game until then. Question 141: A. mentioned B. called C. known D. referred Question 142: A. despite B. nevertheless C. although D. however Question 143: A. believed B. imagined C. held D. taken Question 144: A. place B. stand C. go D. move Question 145: A. representing B. suggesting C. intending D. meaning 23. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 146 to 34. Rain pounded down on the roof. I was trying to read but the sound was too loud. I couldn‟t help myself from being a little grumpy. I wanted to be outside playing, but the rain was keeping me inside. My mom had gone to the grocery store, and my dad was spending Saturday at the office. I had planned to spend the day hiking, but Mother Nature decided that today was the perfect day for rain. It meant that I would have to entertain myself. I spent most of the morning playing with my stuffed animals and reading. I was sitting next to the window staring out when I got a strange idea: why not just go outside anyway? I put on my boots and a big raincoat and stepped out into the wet world. It was raining hard but it wasn‟t cold. All I could hear were raindrops and the wind. I decided to go on my hike anyway. My feet didn‟t make any sound on the wet ground and the forest seemed different. I went to my favourite place and sat down. In the summer, my best friend Ellen and I would come here and sit for hours. It was our special place. All of a sudden, I thought I heard someone shouting my name. I turned and saw Ellen walking up behind me. “Oh my Gosh! It‟s really you, Martha!” she said. “I can‟t believe that you are out here right now. I thought I would be the only person crazy enough to go for a walk in the rain.” I was very happy to have some company. We decided that hiking in the rain was just as fun as hiking in 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 26 the sunshine. We planned on hiking in the rain again. Question 146: What is the best title for the story? A. Rainy Day Work B. Rainy Day Hike C. A Rainy Day Indoors D. Rainy Day Homework Question 147: The word ―grumpy‖ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. stupid B. bad-tempered C. uninterested D. unsatisfactory Question 148: What was keeping Martha inside? A. The heat B. Her parents C. Bad weather D. Lots of homework Question 149: What does Martha mean when she says ―It meant that I would have to entertain myself‖? A. She was tire D. B. She was feeling sick. C. She had to find something to do. D. She was bored with doing homework. Question 150: The word ―company‖ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. time B. space C. friend D. business Question 151: What did Martha think about being outside? A. It was too hot. B. It was too cold. C. It was very nice. D. It was too wet to walk. Question 152: What will Martha and Ellen probably do next time it rains? A. Stay inside B. Do homework C. Go for another hike D. Go to their friend‟s house 24. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 153 to 160. Life in the Universe Exobiology is the study of life that originates from outside of Earth. As yet, of course, no such life forms have been found. Exobiologists, however, have done important work in the theoretical study of where life is most likely to evolve, and what those extrateưestrial life forms might be like. What sorts of planets are most likely to develop life? Most scientists agree that a habitable planet must be terrestrial, or rock-based, with liquid surface water and biogeochemical cycles that somewhat resemble Earth‟s. Water is an important solvent involved in many biological processes. Biogeochemical cycles are the continuous movement and transformation of materials in the environment. These cycles include the circulation of elements and nutrients upon which life and the Earth‟s climate depend. Since (as far as we know) all life is carbon-based, a stable carbon cycle is especially important. The habitable zone is the region around a star in which planets can develop life. Assuming the need for liquid surface water, it follows that most stars around the size of our sun will be able to sustain habitable 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 27 zones for billions of years. Stars that are larger than the sun are much hotter and bum out more quickly; life there may not have enough time to evolve. Stars that are smaller than the sun have different problem. First of all, planets in their habitable zones will be so close to the star that they will be “tidally locked” – that is one side of the planet will always face the star in perpetual daylight with the other side in the perpetual night. Another possible obstacle to life on smaller stars is that they tend to vary in their luminosity, or brightness, due to flares and “star spots”. The variation can be large enough to have harmful effects on the ecosystem. Of course, not all stars of the right size will give rise to life; they also must have terrestrial planets with the right kind of orbits. Most solar systems have more than one planet, which influence each other‟s orbits with their own gravity. Therefore, in order to have a stable system with no planets flying out into space, the orbits must be a good distance from one another. Interestingly, the amount of space needed is roughly the width of a star‟s habitable zone. This means that for life to evolve, the largest possible number of life-supporting planets in any star‟s habitable zone is two. Finally, not all planets meeting the above conditions will necessarily develop life. One major threat is large, frequent asteroid and comet impacts, which will wipe out life each time it tries to evolve. The case of Earth teaches that having large gas giants, such as Saturn and Jupiter,.in the outer part of the solar system can help keep a planet safe for life. Due to their strong gravitation, they tend to catch or deflect large objects before they can reach Earth. Question 153: What is the topic of the passage? A. The search for intelligent life B. Conditions necessary for life C. Characteristics of extraterrestrial life D. Life in our solar system Question 154: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as necessary for the development of life except A. rock B. carbon C. oxygen D. water Question 155: The word ―which‖ in paragraph 3 refers to A. star B. zone C. region D. planet Question 156: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that A. the Earth is in the sun‟s habitable zone B. the Earth is tidally locked to the sun C. the sun varies in its luminosity D. variations in luminosity help life to develop Question 157: The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by A. assist B. have C. need D. experience Question 158: In order for life to develop, a planet’s orbit must not be A. stable B. very close to another planet‟s orbit 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 28 C. on the same planet as another planet‟s orbit D. less wide than the star‟s habitable zone Question 159: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that A. most stars have more than two planets in their habitable zones B. no star has more than two planets in its habitable zone C. it is not possible for a star to have three planets with life on them D. for life to develop, a star must have at least two planets in its habitable zone Question 160: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? A. Because of their nearness, habitable planets orbiting smaller stars usually have either constant daylight or constant night. B. The habitable zones of small stars are so close to the star that planets within them do not spin. C. One problem with some stars is that their habitable zones are tidally locked into either light or darkness. D. Some stars become tidally locked, so that they only shine light on one side of a planet. 25. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In 1972. a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed. The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers. The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species. Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 29 and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas whether as sanctuaries,parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity. Question 161: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves B. Various marine conservation programs C. International agreements on coastal protection D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments Question 162: The word “administered” the passage is closest in meaning to …… A. managed B. recognized C. opposed D. justified Question 163: The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in paragraph 2 as an example of a sanctuary that …. A. is not well known B. covers a large area C. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary D. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status Question 164: According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established? A. Before 1972 B. After 1987 C. One hundred years before national parks were established D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established Question 165: According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT ….. A. the discovery of several new marine organisms B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species C. the protection of coastal habitats D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life Question 166: The word “periphery” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. depth B. landmass C. warm habitat D. outer edge 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 30 Question 167: The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States? A. Limitations in financial support B. The use of marine species as food C. Variability of the climate D. Increases in tourism 26. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution. In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at he beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene. By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced. Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 31 extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material. However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive. Question 168: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Application of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels C. A history of energy use D. A historical review of energy rates Question 169: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental Question 170: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combination C. not derived from mineral deposits D. it could be converted to automobile fuel. Question 171: The phrase “the latter” refers to A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones Question 172: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel? A. it was a concentrated source of energy. B. it was lighter and cheaper than coal. C. it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution. D. it could be converted to automobile fuel. Question 173: It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was obtained primarily from A. Fossil fuels B. Nuclear fission C. Hydraulic and solar sources D. Burning biomass Question 174: The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are curently A. being used for consumption B. available in few locations C. being explored D. examined on a large scale Question 175: The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to A. prohibited B. provided C. too expensive D. too expedient 27. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 32 indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work could be (176) by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too? For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex It has never been one job it has always been many. A factor robot (177) one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn‟t run the whole factory. A housework robot on the other hand, has to do several different (178) _ of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope (179) all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (180) , there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will operate the machine. Question 176: A. managed B. succeeded C. made D. given Question 177: A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away Question 178: A. systems B. types C. ways D. methods Question 179: A. from B. with C. by D. for Question 180: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover Part 28: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks New cycling schemes The County Council has decided to give a higher (181) to cycling and agreed a new strategy to guide the way ahead in East Sussex. Cycling is a (182) , healthy and environmentally friendly form of transport. It is (183) to make it safer, more convenient, and to increase the proportion of journeys made by bicycle. Cycling is being encouraged both for utility purposes (such as journeys to work, school and the shops) and for recreation trips for exercise and enjoyment, including longer trips by tour. Recent cycle schemes carried out in conjunction with District Councils and other bodies (184) the Brighton and Hove seafront route and the Cross Levels Way cycle route, in Eastbourne. Local people will be consulted as the strategy is implemented. The County council will work with local cycling and other groups, and a countrywide Cycling Forum will be formed to (185) that all bodies concerned with cycling are in regular (186) . The (187) of the Cycling strategy are given in a leaflet, and a copy of the full strategy document 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 33 can be seen in County Council Public Libraries. Question 181: A. advantage B. benefit C. priority D. income Question 182: A. low-cost B. dangerous C. shortcut D. high-speed Question 183: A. written B. convinced C. spoken D. intended Question 184: A. consist B. include C. improve D. participate Question 185: A. improve B. ensure C. maintain D. assert Question 186: A. basis B. touch C. contact D. account Question 187: A. rights B. cyclists C. objectives D. vehicles Part 29: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The days of the camera-toting tourist may be numbered. Insensitive travelers are being ordered to stop pointing their cameras and camcorders at reluctant local residents. Tour companies selling expensive trips to remote corners of the world, off the well-trodden path of the average tourist, have become increasingly irritated at the sight of the visitors upsetting locals. Now one such operator plans to ban clients from taking any photographic equipment on holidays. Julian Mathews is the director of Discovery Initiatives, a company that is working hand-in-hand with other organizations to offer holidays combining high adventure with working on environmental projects. His trips are not cheap; two weeks of white-water rafting and monitoring wildlife in Canada cost several thousand pounds. Matthews says he is providing 'holidays without guilt', insisting that Discovery Initiatives is not a tour operator but an environmental support company. Clients are referred to as 'participants' or 'ambassadors'. 'We see ourselves as the next step on from eco-tourism, which is merely a passive form. of sensitive travel - our approach is more proactive.' However, says Matthews, there is a price to pay. 'I am planning to introduce tours with a total ban on cameras and camcorders because of the damage they do to our relationships with local people. I have seen some horrendous things, such as a group of six tourists arriving at a remote village in the South American jungle, each with a video camera attached to their face. That sort of thing tears me up inside. Would you like somebody to come into your home and take a photo of you cooking? A camera is like a weapon; it puts up a barrier and you lose all the communication that comes through body language, which effectively means that the host communities are denied access to the so-called cultural exchange.' Matthews started organizing environmental holidays after a scientific expedition for young people. He subsequently founded Discovery Expeditions, which has helped support 13 projects worldwide. With the launch of Discovery Initiatives, he is placing a greater emphasis on adventure and fun, omitting in the brochure all references to scientific research. But his rules of conduct are strict. 'In some parts of the 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 34 world, for instance, I tell people they should wear long trousers, not shorts, and wear a tie, when eating out. It may sound dictatorial, but I find one has a better experience if one is well dressed. I don't understand why people dress down when they go to other countries.' Matthews' views reflect a growing unease among some tour companies at the increasingly cavalier behaviour of well-heeled tourists. Chris Parrott, of Journey Latin America, says: 'We tell our clients that indigenous people are often shy about being photographed, but we certainly don't tell them not to take a camera. If they take pictures without asking, they may have tomatoes thrown at them.' He also reports that increasing numbers of clients are taking camcorders and pointing them indiscriminately at locals. He says: 'People with camcorders tend to be more intrusive than those with cameras, but there is a payoff - the people they are filming get a tremendous thrill from seeing themselves played back on the viewfinder.' Crispin Jones, of Exodus, the overland truck specialist, says: 'We don't have a policy but, should cameras cause offence, our tour leaders will make it quite clear that they cannot be used. Clients tend to do what they are told. Earthwatch, which pioneered the concept of proactive eco-tourism by sending paying volunteers to work on scientific projects around the world, does not ban cameras, but operates strict rules on their use. Ed Wilson, the marketing director of the company, says: 'We try to impress on people the common courtesy of getting permission before using their cameras, and one would hope that every tour operator would do the same. People have to be not only environmentally aware but also culturally aware. Some people use the camera as a barrier; it allows them to distance themselves from the reality of what they see. I would like to see tourists putting their cameras away for once, rather than trying to record everything they see.' Question 188: The word „indigenous‟ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to A. timid B. native C. ignorant D. impoverished Question 189: Which of the following does Chris Parrott believe? A. Local people may react angrily towards tourists who use cameras B. Tourists are becoming more sensitive about their use of cameras. C. Camcorders always cause more trouble with local people than cameras D. Tourists are unlikely to agree to travel without their cameras. Question 190: In the first paragraph we learn that Discovery Initiatives A. organizes trips to places where few tourists go B. offers trips that no other tour company offers C. has decided to respond to its customers‟ complaints D. has already succeeded in changing the kind of tourist it attracts Question 191: Which of the following best summarizes the view of Earthwatch? 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 35 A. There are more problems concerning the use of cameras these days. B. Cameras enable people to be detached from places they visit. C. Too many tour operators ignore the problems caused by cameras. D. Most tourists realize when they have caused offence to local people. Question 192: The word „courtesy‟ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. dignity B. politeness C. nobility D. elite Question 193: What does Matthews say in paragraph 3 about cameras and camcorders? A. They prevent local people from learning about other societies. B. They encourage holidaymakers to behave unpredictably. C. They discourage holidaymakers from intruding on local people. D. They give local people a false impression of holidaymakers. Question 194: What is Matthews keen for clients to realize? A. that the brochure does not contain all the information they need. B. that certain behavior may spoil their enjoyment of a trip. C. that it is likely that they will not be allowed in certain places. D. that they may find certain local customs rather surprising. Part 30: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth‟s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution. Certainly, there have been periods in Earth‟s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out. However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 36 it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments. Question 195: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs B. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments D. The impact of human activities on Earth‟s ecosystems Question 196: The word “critical” is closest in meaning to A. complicated B. interesting C. negative D. essential Question 197: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that A. the cause of the dinosaurs‟ extinction is unknown B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species‟ extinction C. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity D. Earth‟s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs‟extinction Question 198: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to A. shocking B. unknown C. illuminating D. predicted Question 199: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world‟s ecosystems EXCEPT A. habitat destruction in wetlands B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species C. damage to marine ecosystems D. destruction of the tropical rain forests Question 200: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy. B. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems. C. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress. D. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems. 31. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 201 to 208 The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China. Construction began in 1406, and the emperor's court officially moved in by 1420. The Forbidden City got its name because most people were barred from entering the 72-hectare site, surrounded by walls. Even government officials and the imperial family were permitted only limited access. Only the emperor could enter any 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 37 section at will. The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese principles. All buildings within the walls follow a north-south line and the most important ones face south to honor the sun. The designers arranged the other buildings, and the ceremonial spaces between them, to impress all visitors with the great power of the Emperor, while reinforcing the insignificance of the individual. This architectural concept was carried out to the smallest detail. For example, the importance of a building was determined not only by its height or width but also by the style of its roof and the quantity of statuettes placed on the roof‟s ridges. In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added the palace to its World Heritage List in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do not wait for an imperial invitation to walk about this palace, now a museum of imperial art. One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate, the formal entrance to the southern side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary wings on either side of the entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof ridge. When you stand in front of this majestic structure, you understand how awed people felt when they stood there listening to imperial proclamations. As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and 210 meters wide. Running through the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by five parallel white marble bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate of Supreme Harmony, which, in turn, leads to the heart of the Forbidden City. At the northernmost end of the Forbidden City is the Imperial Garden, which is totally different from the rest of the compound. Instead of rigid formality, you see a seemingly spontaneous arrangement of trees, fishponds, flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here is the place of relaxation for the emperor. Question 201: According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead to? A. The Meridian gate B. The Gate of Supreme Harmony C. The Imperial Gardens D. The center of Beijing Question 202: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word 'unparalleled' as used in paragraph 3? A. high quality found nowhere else B. at an angle from the main line C. careless of small details in design D. partially designed in a foreign country Question 203: From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the Forbidden City is A. not very impressive B. surrounded by three tall walls C. decorated with statuettes D. painted gold and green Question 204: Which word(s) does the word 'its' refer to in paragraph 3? A. Architecture B. World Heritage List C. Palace D. UNESCO Question 205: Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word "spontaneous"? 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 38 A. Without thinking B. Unique C. Without planning D. Strange Question 206: From the passage, it can be inferred that A. Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries B. the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern. C. the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless. D. the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values. Question 207: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “proclamations”? A. Poetry written for the emperor. B. Music composed for public ceremonies. C. Speeches encouraging soldiers to fight. D. Official public announcements. Question 208: Which sentence in the first paragraph explains who could go anywhere in the Forbidden City at any time? A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 5 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 3 32. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 209 to 215. People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once every two months. Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood from a donor‟s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents the blood from clotting. When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected to the recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria. Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets. Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen alt blood donors and their blood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed. Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 39 freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon to human health. Question 209: All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes B. Air bubbles in the blood C. Allergies D. Red-cell incompatibility Question 210: What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by? A. irradiated B. rigorously C. routinely D. removed Question 211: According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells? A. Every four months B. Every three month C. Every two months D. Every month Question 212: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to infants and newborns? A. It is treated with radiant energy. B. It is not treated differently from adults. C. It is not dangerous for children. D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults. Question 213: The word "it" refers t A. surgical procedures B. accident victims C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients Question 214: What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”? A. not illustrated B. not captured C. not found D. not wanted Question 215: What does the author imply in the passage? A. Motoring blood benefits mankind. B. Clotting cannot be prevented. C. Freezing blood destroys platelets. D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process. 33. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 216 to 220. Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist. Although a fewwell-known ones, like Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling, have become wealthy, most writers find it difficult even to make a living from their book sales. Novels take a long time towrite, and authors can get into financial (216) if they don‟t have money coming in regularly from another job. But for those determined to write novels, it is without (217) one of the most enjoyable kinds of work to do. The writer has to be creative, thinking up completely new stories, and (218) , meaning they put all their time and effort into their work. They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them. For this, a good sense of (219) often helps. Or the thought that maybe their novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood (220) ! 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 40 Question 216: A. problem B. trouble C. upset D. worry Question 217: A. difficulty B. suspicion C. thinking D. doubt Question 218: A. deliberate B. delivered C. decided D. dedicated Question 219: A. hoping B. humor C. smiling D. joking Question 220: A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. victory 34. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8. The world is losing languages at an alarming rate. Michael Krauss suggested that of the approximately 6,000 human languages alive today, only 350 to 500 are safe from extinction. Some linguists estimate that a language dies every two weeks or so. At the current rate, by 2100, about 2,500 native languages could disappear. Languages become extinct for many reasons. Through imperialism, colonizers impose their languages on colonies. Some politicians believe multilingualism will fragment national interests. Thus they prohibit education in all but the national language. Another reason for language death is the spread of more powerful languages. In the world today, several languages, including English, are so dominant in commerce, science, and education, that languages with fewer speakers have trouble competing. Although in the past, governments have been one of the primary causes of language death, many have now become champions of preserving endangered languages and have had some significant successes. Two outstanding examples are the revival of Hebrew and Irish. Hebrew was considered a dead language, like Latin, but is now the national language of Israel. Irish was not dead, but severely threatened by English when the government of Ireland began its rescue immediately after the establishment of the Irish Free State in 1922. All students in public schools must now take some classes in Irish and there are Irish programs in major media, such as television and radio. According to the Irish government, approximately 37% of the population of Ireland now speaks Irish. One of the largest programs to revive languages, Documenting Endangered Languages (DEL), is being conducted by three U.S. government agencies: the National Science Foundation, the National Endowment for the Humanities, and the National Museum of Natural History. Researchers funded by these agencies are recording interviews with the mostly elderly people who still speak the languages. Analyses of these interviews will help linguists publish dictionaries and grammars of the languages. Eventually, linguists hope to establish language-training programs where younger people can learn the languages, carrying them on into the future. The linguists participating in DEL defend spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages. They point out that when a language dies, humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world that that culture held. Traditional healers in rural areas have given scientists important leads in finding new 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 41 medicines; aspirin is an example of these. But one of the most common reasons given by these researchers is that studying languages gives us insight into the radically different way humans organize their world. David Lightfoot, an official at the National Science foundation, gives the example of Guguyimadjir, and Australian aboriginal language, in which there are no words for “right” or left,” only for “north,” “south,” “east,” and “west.” Many researchers are optimistic that the efforts to save dying languages will succeed, at least in part. Bruce L. Cole, Chairman of the National Endowment for the Humanities, said, “Not only is this a time of great potential loss, it is also a moment for enormous potential gain. In this modern age of computers and our growing technological capabilities, we can preserve, assemble, analyze, and understand unprecedented riches of linguistic and cultural information.” Question 221: What is the best title for this passage? A. Similarities between Engendered Species B. Preserving Endangered Languages C. Linguistic Globalization D. How Languages Die and Efforts to Revive Them Question 222: According to the passage, which language is a dead language? A. Irish B. English C. Hebrew D. Latin Question 223: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that . A. It is the Governments that make the right policies on language preservation. B. No governments can preserve languages once they have disappeared. C. Governments are more concerned with their imperialism than language preservation. D. Governments take education as the tool to spread their languages. Question 224: The word “revive” in paragraph 4 mostly means . A. bring in B. bring back C. regain D. retain Question 225: According to the passage, what would linguists in the DEL project like to do someday? A. Record interviews with elderly people B. Get funding from the government C. Teach endangered languages to young people D. Write a dictionary and grammar for Irish Question 226: The word “these” in paragraph 5 refers to . A. dying languages B. traditional healers C. important leads D. new medicines Question 227: David Lightfoot gives the example of Guguyimadjir in order to . A. protest against spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages B. describe how humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world through dead languages C. prove that languages give us insight into different ways humans organize their world D. show how language preservation helps traditional healers in rural areas find new medicines 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 42 Question 228: How would you describe Bruce Cole‟s opinion of the DEL project? A. He thinks that we will lose the fight to save endangered languages. B. He believes that it isn‟t worth the time and energy required to save languages. C. He believes we can save significant amounts of information about languages. D. He thinks that we will be able to save Guguyimadjir, the aboriginal language. 35. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 229 to 233. We all want to live in a clean and green world and breathe pollution free air. For this kind of environment we desperately need a fossil fuel free world. Scientists are toiling hard to come up (229) alternative fuels which can replace conventional fuels. One such study was presented at the 237th National Meeting of the American Chemical Society. This study throws interesting light on the first economical, eco-friendly process to (230) algae oil into biodiesel fuel. The scientists are quite hopeful that one day America will become independent (231) fossil fuels. Ben Wen is the (232) researcher and vice president of United Environment and Energy LLC, Horseheads, N.Y. According to him, “This is the first economical way to produce biodiesel from algae oil. It costs much less than conventional processes because you would need a much smaller factory, there (233) _ no water disposal costs, and the process is considerably faster.” Question 229: A. to B. against C. with D. for Question 230: A. adapt B. transform C. modify D. alter Question 231: A. on B. from C. with D. of Question 232: A. lead B. top C. summit D. peak Question 233: A. were B. are C. had D. have 36. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 234 to 240. Rome is the capital of Italy. This sprawling modern city has many ancient monuments. Rome‟s history goes back more than 2,500 years. Because of its age, Rome is often called the Eternal City. Rome‟s many art treasures and historic buildings make the city an important center of European culture. In ancient times, Rome was the center of a mighty Roman empire. The empire lasted nearly 500 years, into the ad 400s. Roman armies conquered the lands that are now Italy, Greece, Great Britain, France, and Egypt. The Romans built many roads from Rome to distant parts of their empire. This network of roads led to a saying that “All roads lead to Rome.” The Roman Empire‟s influence is still present. The Romans spread their language, Latin, throughout Europe. Latin is the basis for Italian, French, Spanish, and other European languages. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 43 The ancient Romans were great builders. Several of their buildings still stand today. They are among Rome‟s famous landmarks.The Pantheon is a temple dedicated to the many Roman gods of mythology. The Roman Colosseum is a four-story amphitheater. An amphitheater is like a football stadium. The Colosseum is where Roman citizens once watched gladiators fight to the death. The Roman Forum was the political center of ancient Rome. The senate building and law courts were there, along with shops and religious buildings. Many artists painted in Rome. The most famous of them is Michelangelo. He lived 500 years ago. Thousands of people visit Rome each year to see his art. Visitors to the Vatican stare in wonder at the beautiful murals that Michelangelo painted on the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel. The murals show scenes from the first book of the Bible, the Book of Genesis. Vatican City is the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church. The pope lives at the Vatican. He is the head of the Catholic Church. There are more than a billion Catholics worldwide, making Roman Catholicism the largest Christian religion. Vatican City is an independent country within Rome. It is the smallest country in the world. Question 234: Rome is called the Eternal City because . A. it is over thousands of years old B. it is sprawling modern C. it has many ancient monuments D. its history goes too far away Question 235: Rome is made an important center of European culture . A. by the country of Italy B. with its long history C. by its art treasures and historic buildings D. for its many ancient monuments Question 236: The word “mighty” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. powerful B. great C. strong D. wealthy Question 237: The author mentions the Pantheon, the Roman Colosseum, and the Roman Forum as . A. great builders B. famous landmarks C. gods of mythology D. Roman citizens Question 238: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that . A. the Pantheon is a famous landmark building in modern Rome B. Roman citizens watched gladiators fight to the death in the Colosseum C. important political decisions were made in the Roman Forum D. the Roman Colosseum is an amphitheater with four floors Question 239: The word “murals” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _ . A. Bible books B. walls C. paintings D. Bible stories Question 240: According to the passage, what is NOT true about Vatican City? A. It is the headquarters of the Roman Catholic Church. B. It is the largest Christian religion area in the world. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 44 C. It is an independent country within Rome. D. It is where the head of the Catholic Church lives. 37. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. On April 3, 1972, a man came out of the Hilton hotel in Manhattan and started walking down the street. He stopped, (241) _ his hand with a strange object in it, put it to his ear and started to talk into it. This was the beginning of mobile phone (242) , more than 30 years ago. That man was Motorola's project manager, Martin Cooper, who was (243) his 34th birthday that day. The strange object was the first mobile phone, which was nicknamed "the shoe" because of its unusual (244) . Mr. Cooper had gone to New York to introduce the new phone. The first call he made was to his rival, Joe Engel at AT&T's research centre. Engel was responsible for the development of the radiophones for cars. "I called him and said that I was talking on a real mobile phone (245) I was holding in my hand," said Cooper. "I don't remember what he said in reply, but I'm sure he wasn't happy." The quality of the call was very good, because although New York had only one base station at that time, it was being used by only one user - Martin Cooper. Question 241: A. pulled B. raised C. lifted D. rose Question 242: A. past B. times C. history D. story Question 243: A. making B. driving C. expecting D. celebrating Question 244: A. kind B. shape C. type D. symbol Question 245: A. that B. when C. as D. how 38. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Most of the early houses built in America were suited to farm life, as it was not until cities became manufacturing centers that colonists could survive without farming as their major occupation. Among the earliest farmhouses in America were those built in Plymouth Colony. Generally they consisted of one large rectangular room on the ground floor, called a hall or great room and having a fireplace built into one of the walls, and a loft overhead. Sometimes a lean-to was attached alongside the house to store objects such as spinning wheels, firewood, barrels, and tubs. The furnishings in the great room were sparse and crudely built. Tabletops and chest boards were split or roughly sawed and often smoothed only on one side. Benches took the place of chairs, and the table usually had a trestle base so it could be dismantled when extra space was required. One or two beds and a six-board chest were located in one corner of the room. The fireplace was used for heat and light, and a bench often placed nearby for 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 45 children and elders, in the area called the inglenook. The original houses in Plymouth Colony were erected within a tall fence for fortification. However, by 1630 Plymouth Colony had 250 inhabitants, most living outside the enclosure. By 1640, settlements had been built some distance from the original site. Villages began to emerge throughout Massachusetts and farmhouses were less crudely built. Windows brought light into homes and the furnishings and décor were more sophisticated. As more diversified groups of immigrants settled the country, a greater variety of farmhouses appeared, from Swedish long-style houses in the Delaware Valley to saltbox houses in Connecticut, Dutch Flemish stone farmhouses in New York, and clapboard farmhouses in Pennsylvania. From Georgian characteristics to Greek revival elements, farmhouses of varied architectural styles and building functions populated the landscape of the new frontier. Question 246: The main idea of the passage is A. The history of the American farmhouse B. Where immigrants settled in America C. How to build an American farmhouse D. life in Plymouth Colony Question 247: Which of the following is not mentioned as part of the furnishings in farmhouses? A. Rocking chair B. Bench C. Trestle- based table D. Six - board chest Question 248: According to the passage the earliest farmhouses were built in A. Delaware Valley B. Massachusetts C. Connecticut D. Pennsylvania Question 249: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to A. trestle base B. space C. table D. chest board Question 250: It can be inferred from the passage that A. the major occupation in Plymouth Colony was carpentry B. sophisticated tools were available to the early immigrants C. cloth was important from England D. the extended family lived together in the farmhouse Question 251: The passage was most probably written by a specialist in American A. urban planning B. farming C. architecture D. immigration Question 252: The word “emerge” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced with A. proceed B. settle C. come out D. appear 39. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down one after another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 46 caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the 1920's and 1930's, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters. In the 1940's and 1950's, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage. You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes - the blueprints for each of the enzymes - and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases - diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for medicine and for better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibilliondollar industry. In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight. When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the funtions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them later. Question 253: What is the main topic of the passage? A. The microbe hunters. B. The potential of genetic engineering. C. The progress of modern medical research. D. The discovery of enzymes. Question 254: The word “incriminated‟ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to A. blamed B. eliminated C. investigated D. produced Question 255: Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet? A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystique fibroses D. Pell Agra Question 256: The word “strived” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. studied B. tried C. experimented D. failed Question 257: How do vitamins influence health? A. They protect the body from microbes B. They are broken down by cells to produce energy C. They keep food from spoiling D. They are necessary for some enzymes to function Question 258: The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. go to furthest B. lighten to load C. conquer territory D. receive the most attention 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 47 Question 259: The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be A. the functions of the brain B. inherited diseases C. the operation of vitamins D. the structure of genes Question 260: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. Most diseases are caused by defective genes B. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades. C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters. D. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck. 40. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that best fits each of the blanks. HOLIDAYS We've just come back exhausted after a two-week holiday in France. We were really stupid. On the last day we drove non-stop from Marseille to Calais- we should have(261) our journey in Lyon or Paris. As if that wasn't enough, the sea was so rough in the English Channel that the (262) three hours instead of one and a half. Next year we've decided we're going on a cheap (263) _ took holiday to Italy. It sounds marvellous- the cost of the flight, the hotel and all our meals are (264) _ in the price. While we're in Rome we'll be going on a guided tour of the Coliseum. The last time I was in Italy, I was on a business trip - I can't say I saw many of the famous tourist (265) on that occasion Question 261: A. stopped B. paused C. broken D. interrupted Question 262: A. expedition B. crossig C. cruise D. passage Question 263: A. party B. package C. overall D. inclusive 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 48 Question 264: A. included B. involved C. contained D. combined Question 265: A. views B. visit C. scenes D. sights 41. Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade! Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning. In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers. Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal. Question 266: The phrase "held back" in paragraph 1 means . A. made to lag behind B. prevented from advancing C. forced to study in lower classes D. made to remain in the same classes Question 267: The author argues that a teacher‟s chief concern should be the development of the pupils‟ A. intellectual abilities B. learning ability and communicative skills C. personal and social skills D. total personality Question 268: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities B. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others C. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 49 D. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers Question 269: The author‟s purpose of writing this passage is to . A. offer advice on the proper use of the school library B. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class C. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching Question 270: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full B. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work C. It‟s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class D. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual abilities Question 271: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching? A. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class B. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own C. Formal class teaching is the important way to give pupils essential skills such as those to be used in the library. D. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development Question 272: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” A. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience C. is quite discouraging D. will help the pupils learn best Question 273: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because A. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems B. it doesn‟t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils C. its aim at developing the children‟s total personality D. formal class teaching is appropriate 42. Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter‟s less than 10 hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for any other planet. The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 50 color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to - 22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter‟s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted. Question 274: It can be inferred from the passage A. a day on Earth is shorter than a day on Jupiter B. there are other structures on Jupiter that has the same size as the Great Red Spot C. there are times when Great Red Spot cannot be observed from the earth D. the Great Red Spot is the only structure on Jupiter Question 275: According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly? A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars Question 276: According to the passage, the Great Red Spot . A. has different colors B. is as big as the earth C. is a solid structure floating in the air D. has increased its size over the years Question 277: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to . A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color Question 278: The word “exceptional” in paragraph 2 mostly means A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent Question 279: According to the passge, which of the following is NOT true? A. Jupiter is bigger than all the other planest in the solar system. B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long. C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally. D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other Great Red Spots. Question 280: The passage was probably taken from A. an art journal B. a geology magazine C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book 43. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Although the “lie detectors” are being used by governments, police departments, and businesses that all 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 51 want guaranteed ways of detecting the truth, the results are not always accurate. Lie detectors are properly called emotion detectors, for their aim is to measure bodily changes that contradict what a person says. The polygraph machine records changes in heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and the electrical activity of the skin (galvanic skin response, or GSR). In the first part of the polygraph test, you are electronically connected to the machine and asked a few neutral questions (“What is your name?”, “Where do you live?”). Your physical reactions serve as the standard (baseline) for evaluating what comes next. Then you are asked a few critical questions among the neutral ones (“When did you rob the bank?”). The assumption is that if you are guilty, your body will reveal the truth, even if you try to deny it. Your heart rate, respiration, and GSR will change abruptly as you respond to the incriminating questions. That is the theory; but psychologists have found that lie detectors are simply not reliable. Since most physical changes are the same across all emotions, machines cannot tell whether you are feeling guilty, angry, nervous, thrilled, or revved up form an exciting day. Innocent people may be tense and nervous about the whole procedure. They may react physiologically to a certain word (“bank”) not because they robbed it, but because they recently bounced a check. In either case the machine will record a “lie”. The reverse mistake is also common. Some practiced liars can lie without flinching, and others learn to beat the machine by tensing muscles or thinking about an exciting experience during neutral questions. Question 281: What is the main idea of this passage? A. Lie detectors distinguish different emotions B. Physical reaction reveal guilty C. Lie detectors make innocent people nervous D. How lie detectors are used and their reliability Question 282: According to the test, polygraph _ . A. measure a person‟s thoughts B. always reveal the truth about a person C. make guilty people angry D. record a person‟s physical reactions Question 283: According to the passage, what kind of questions is asked on the first part of the polygraph test? A. incriminating B. critical C. emotional D. unimportant Question 284: The word “ones” in paragraph 1 refers to . A. questions B. reactions C. standards D. evaluations Question 285: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to . A. the question B. your body C. the assumption D. the truth Question 286: The word “assumption” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with . A. belief B. faith C. statement D. imagining Question 287: This passage was probably written by a specialist in . 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 52 A. sociology B. anthropology C. criminal psychology D. mind reading 44. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Pollution is a threat to many species on Earth, but sometimes it can cause species to thrive. Such is the case with Pfiesteria piscicida. A one-celled creature called a dinoflagellate, Pfiesteria inhabits warm coastal areas and river mouths, especially along the eastern United States. Although scientists have found evidence of Pfiesteria in 3,000-year-old sea floor sediments and dinoflagellates are thought to be one of the oldest life forms on earth, few people took notice of Pfiesteria. Lately, however, blooms – or huge, dense populations – of Pfiesteria are appearing in coastal waters, and in such large concentrations the dinoflagellates become ruthless killers. The blooms emit powerful toxins that weaken and entrap fish that swim into the area. The toxins eventually cause the fish to develop large bleeding sores through which the tiny creatures attack, feasting on blood and flesh. Often the damage is astounding. During a 1991 fish kill, which was blamed on Pfiesteria on North Carolina‟s Neuse River, nearly one billion fish died and bulldozers had to be brought in to clear the remains from the river. Of course, such events can have a devastating effect on commercially important fish, but that is just one way that Pfiesteria causes problems. The toxins it emits affect human skin in much the same way as they affect fish skin. Additionally, fisherman and others who have spent time near Pfiesteria blooms report that the toxins seem to get into the air, where once inhaled they affect the nervous system, causing severe headaches, blurred vision, nausea, breathing difficulty, short-term memory loss and even cognitive impairment. For a while, it seemed that deadly Pfiesteria blooms were a threat only to North Carolina waters, but the problem seems to be spreading. More and more, conditions along the east coast seem to be favorable for Pfiesteria. Researchers suspect that pollutants such as animal waste from livestock operations, fertilizers washed from farmlands and waste water from mining operations have probably all combined to promote the growth of Pfiesteria in coastal waters. Question 288: What is true of Pfiesteria? A. It seems to flourish in the presence of certain pollutants B. It has been a menace to fish and humans for over 3000 years. C. It is the oldest life form on earth D. In large concentrations, it poses a threat to fish but not to humans. Question 289: What is the main function of the toxins emitted by the dinoflagellates? A. They are quick-acting poisons that kill fish within minutes. B. They weaken the fish just long enough for the tiny creatures to attack C. They damage the nervous system of potential predators. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 53 D. They cause fish to develop wounds on which creatures feed. Question 290: The word “astounding” in the passage is closest in meaning to . A. continual B. incredible C. spectacular D. apprehensive Question 291: What were bulldozers used for in the Neuse River? A. cleaning up the sediment at the bottom of the river B. excavating holes to bury the dead fish C. scooping up the vast number of dead fish in the water D. removing the huge amount of Pfiesteria from the river Question 292: According to the paragraph 2, what will NOT happen if one breathes the toxic air? A. vomiting B. visual impairments C. circulatory difficulty D. terrible headaches Question 293: What is especially worrying about Pfiesteria blooms? A. Conditions are becoming increasingly favourable for their spread B. They are fatal to humans who come in contact with them C. They have devastated the fishing industry in U.S coastal waters D. Researchers have no idea as to exactly what causes them Question 294: All of the following are true, according to the passage, EXCEPT A. Pfiesteria caused the death of about one billion fish in the late 1990s B. animal and chemical waste from farmlands, livestock and mining operations may contribute to the expansion of Pfiesteria C. Pfiesteria was not commonly noticed despite scientific findings D. the toxic subtances emitted by Pfiesteria have a similar effect on human and fish skins Question 295: In which environment would you NOT expect a Pfiesteria bloom to develop? A. a marsh which absorbs waste water from a nearby pig farm B. a river located near a rock quarry C. a cool mountain lake teeming with fish D. a river that flows through rich farmland 45. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the blanks It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing you have to be aware of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you‟ve made up your (296) to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don‟t let the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching your target, and let the constructive criticism have a positive effect on your work. If someone says you‟re totally in the (297) of talent, ignore them. That‟s negative criticism. If, (298) , someone advises you to revise your work and gives you a good reason for doing so, you should consider 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 54 their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of work . There are many famous novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel – or who didn‟t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it (299) . Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (300) well if you persevere and stay positive. Question 296: A. thought B. mind C. idea D. brain Question 297: A. absentee B. missing C. lack D. shortage Question 298: A. hence B. however C. whereas D. otherwise Question 299: A. publishes B. published C. to publish D. publish Question 300: A. deal with B. turn out C. sail through D. come into 46. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Simply being bilingual doesn‟t qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a mechanical process of converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in languageb. Rather, its a complex art in which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts from tongue to tongue _ or words that have several meanings must be quickly transformed in such a way that the message is clearly and accurately expressed to the listener. At one international conference, an American speaker said, “You cant make a silk purse out of a sows ear”, which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, “A monkey in a silk dress is still a monkey” _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed the same idea. There are 2 kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a separated booth, usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting what a foreign language speaker says _ actually a sentence behind. Consecutive interpreters are the ones most international negotiations use. They are employed for smaller meetings without sound booths and headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires two-person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece while the interpreter, using a special shorthand, takes notes and during a pause, tells the client what was said. Question 301: What is the purpose of the passage? A. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters. B. To state the qualifications of an interpreter. C. To point out the importance of an interpreter. D. To explain the scope of interpreting. Question 302: What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous interpreter and a consecutive interpreter? 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 55 A. The size of group with whom they work. B. Their proficiency in the language. C. The type of dictionary they use. D. The money they are paid. Question 303: The word “converting” is closest in meaning to… A. changing B. concluding C. understanding D. reading Question 304: The author implies that most people have the opinion that the skill of interpreting is ….. A. very complex and demanding B. based on principles of business C. simpler than it really is D. highly valued and admired Question 305: The phrase “the former“ refers to… A. simultaneous interpreters B. the conference C. consecutive interpreters D. the booth Question 306: The example “You cant make a silk purse out of a sows ear” is used to... A. point out the difference in attributes of animals in English and Spanish B. emphasize the need for translation of the meaning of what is said C. show the differences in language A and language B D. stress the importance of word for word translation Question 307: The word “rather” is closest in meaning to…. A. in brief B. on the contrary C. in general D. as a result Question 308: Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be used for? A. An interpretation of a major literary work. B. A business transaction between 2 foreign speakers. C. A large meeting of many nations. D. A translation of a foreign book. 47. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can't find the energy to get out of bed (309) for school? According to a new report, today's generation of children are in danger of getting so (310) _ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (311) _. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (312) teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (313) anything between two and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at their age. By Tim Falla and Paul A.Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP Question 309: A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at time Question 310: A. few B. less C. much D. little Question 311: A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 56 Question 312: A. or B. because C. whereas D. so Question 313: A. puts B. gets C. brings D. makes 48. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Fish that live on the sea bottom benefit by being flat and hugging the contours. There are two very different types of flatfish and they have evolved in very separate ways. The skates and rays, relatives of the sharks have become flat in what might be called the obvious way. Their bodies have grown out sideways to form great “wings” They look as though they have been flattened but have remained symmetrical and “the right way up”. Conversely fish such as plaice, sole, and halibut have become flat in a different way. There are bony fish which have a marked tendency to be flattened in a vertical direction; they are much “taller” than they are wide. They use their whole vertically flattened bodies as swimming surfaces, which undulate through the water as they move. Therefore when * their ancestors migrated to the seabed, they lay on one side than on their bellies. However, this raises the problem that one eye was always looking down into the sand and was effectively useless - In evolution this problem was solved by the lower eye “moving” around the other side. We see this process of moving around enacted in the development of every young bony flatfish. It starts life swimming near the surface, and is symmetrical and vertically flattened, but then the skull starts to grow in a strange asymmetrical twisted fashion, so that one eye for instance the left, moves over the top of the head upwards, an old Picasso - like vision. Incidentally, some species of 20 flatfish settle on the right side, others on the left, and others on either side. Question 314: The passage is mainly concerned with: A. symmetrical flatfish B. bony flatfish C. evolution of flatfish D. different types of flatfish Question 315: The author mentions skates and rays as examples of fish that A. become asymmetrical B. appear to fly C. have spread horizontally D. resemble sharks Question 316: It can be inferred from the passage that the early life of a flatfish is A. often confusing B. pretty normal C. very difficult D. full of danger Question 317: It can be inferred from the passage that horizontal symmetrical fish A. have one eye each side of the head B. have one eye underneath the head C. have two eyes on top of the head D. have eyes that move around the head Question 318: The word “conversely” is closest in meaning to: A. Similarly B. Alternatively C. Inversely D. Contrarily Question 319: The word “this” refers to A. the migration of the ancestors 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 57 B. the practice of lying on one side C. the problem of the one eye looking downwards D. the difficulty of the only one eye being useful Question 320: According to the passage, the ability of a bony flatfish to move its eyes around is A. average B. weak C. excellent D. variable 49. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 321 to 325. My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week. I came across the advertisement in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The (321) manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff, I was (322) to some benefits, including discounts. When I eventually started, I was responsible (323) the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there fun even when we had to deal with customers (324) got on our nerves. (325) , working there was a great experience which I will never forget. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 58 Question 321: A. personal B. personable C. personage D. personnel Question 322 A. catered B. given C. entitled D. supplied Question 323: A. for B. with C. in D. to Question 324: A. which B. why C. when D. who Question 325: A. In contrast B. However C. Moreover D. On the whole 50. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often. Question 326: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to . A. doctors B. ideas C. professionals D. companies 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 59 Question 327: The phrase “negative publicity” in paragraph 2 most likely means . A. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones B. information on the lethal effects of cellphones C. the negative public use of cellphones D. widespread opinion about bad effect of cellphones Question 328: According to the passage, cellphones are very popular with young people because . A. they make them look more stylish B. they are worrying C. they are a means of communication D. they are considered unusual Question 329: What could be the most suitable title for the passage? A. Technological Innovations and Their Price B. The Way Mobile Phones Work C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time D. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular Question 330: The word “potentially” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to . A. possibly B. privately C. obviously D. certainly Question 331: According to the passage, people should . A. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies B. never use mobile phones in all cases C. only use mobile phone in urgent cases D. keep off mobile phones regularly Question 332: According to paragraph 3, the salesman . A. couldn‟t remember his name B. blamed his doctor C. had a problem with memory D. had to retire because of his age 51. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. TRAVELING TO WORK If you were going to choose a job that involves travel, what would be your first choice? There are many jobs available today that give people opportunities to travel. Although may traveling careers sound fantastic, they also have disadvantages. ⮚ Being an au pair is an excellent way to not only go to different countries, but to live in different places around the world and really get a feel for the culture. Au pairs lives with the families they are placed with and take of children. Many parents include au pairs in family events and 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 60 vacations, so they experience many aspects of the new culture while on the job. However, many of the activities are centered around the children, so they may not get to experience many things that interest adults. ⮚ For people who want a bit more freedom working abroad, being an English teacher maybe a good choice. There are English teaching jobs in almost countries in the world. People teaching English in other countries often have a chance to travel on the weekends around the country. One drawback is that many teachers often wind up hanging out with other English teachers, and they don‟t have time to learn the country‟s language. ⮚ The nickname “roadie” implies that this job involves life on the road. Roadies are people who work and travel with bands and provide technical support. Roadies can be lighting and stage crew who set up the stage and break it down before and after events. They can also be technicians helping band members with their instruments. International tours take a band‟s crew to cities around the world, often requiring air travel. However, the crew doesn‟t get much time off, so they may travel to several countries without seeing much besides concert venues and hotels. ⮚ Similarly, flight attendants often travel to cities around the world, but they don‟t see much besides the inside of airplanes and hotels. However, when they do have time off, they can often fly at no cost, and family member can sometimes fly free as well. Its is widely thought that a flight attendant job is glamorous, but flight attendants must deal with travel hassles, as well as security issues. ⮚ All jobs gave advantages and disadvantages whether or not you travel for work, so if you have the travel bug, keep these jobs in mind for the future. Question 333: Which of the following is a disadvantage of the job as an au pair? A. experience many interesting things B. live in different places around the world C. experience many aspects of the new culture D. most activities are centered around children Question 324: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Jobs with opportunities to travel B. Disadvantages of travelling jobs C. Travelling to and from work D. Jobs involving traveling by planes Question 335: The word “glamorous” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to . A. skilled B. attractive C. permanent D. challenging Question 336: How is a flight attendant‟s job similar to a roadie‟s? A. Family members may not have to pay for flights B. They must deal with travel hassles. C. A lot of time is spent indoors. D. They provide technical support. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 61 Question 337: The word “venue” in paragraph 4 is closet meaning to ? A. performances B. places C. tours D. artists Question 338: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ? A. people B. opportunities C. careers D. disadvantages Question 339: Which of the following is something a roadie might do? A. set up the lights for a performance B. play the guitar in front of a large audience C. clean hotel rooms after the ban and crew have left D. work on the road Question 340: It can be inferred from the passage that . A. travelling careers have more disadvantages than many other B. English teachers abroad don‟t know the language of the country where they work C. it‟s essential that the job you choose have more benefits than drawbacks D. people who want to travel are more likely to get a job 52. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions A considerable body of research has demonstrated a correlation between birth order and aspects such as temperament and behavior, and some psychologists believe that birth order significantly affects the development of personality. Psychologist Alfred Adler was a pioneer in the study of the relationship between birth order and personality. A key point in his research and in the hypothesis that he developed based on it was that it was not the actual numerical birth position that affected personality; instead, it was the similar responses in large numbers of families to children in specific birth order positions that had an effect. For example, first-borns, who have their parents to themselves initially and do not have to deal with siblings in the first part of their lives, tend to have their first socialization experiences with adults and therefore tend to find the process of peer socialization more difficult. In contrast, later-born children have to deal with siblings from the first moment of their lives and therefore tend to have stronger socialization skills. Numerous studies since Adler‟s have been conducted on the effect of birth order and personality. These studies have tended to classify birth order types into four different categories: first-born, second-born and/or middle, last, and only child. Studies have consistently shown that first-born children tend to exhibit similar, positive and negative personality traits. First-borns have consistently been linked with academic achievement in various studies; in one study, the number of National Merit scholarship winners who are first-borns was found to be equal to the number of second-and third-borns combined. First-borns have been found to be more 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 62 responsible and assertive than those born in other birth-order positions and tend to rise to positions of leadership more often than others; more first-borns have served in the U.S. Congress and as U.S. presidents than have those born in other birth-orderpositions. However, studies have shown that first borns tend to be more subject to stress and were considered problem children more often than later borns. Second-born and/or middle children demonstrate markedly different tendencies from first-borns. They tend to feel inferior to the older child or children because it is difficult for them to comprehend that their lower level of achievement is a function of age rather than ability, and they often try to succeed in areas other than those in which their older sibling or siblings excel. They tend to be more trusting, accepting, and focused on others than the more self-centered first-borns, and they tend to have a comparatively higher level of success in team sports than do first-borns or only children, who more often excel in individual sports. The last-born child is the one who tends to be the eternal baby of the family and thus often exhibits a strong sense of security. Last-borns collectively achieve the highest degree of social success and demonstrate the highest levels of self-esteem of all the birth-order positions. They often exhibit less competitiveness than older brothers and sisters and are more likely to take part in less competitive group games or in social organizations such as sororities and fraternities. Only children tend to exhibit some of the main characteristics of first-borns and some of the characteristics of last-borns. Only children tend to exhibit the strong sense of security and self-esteem exhibited by last-borns while, like first-borns, they are more achievement oriented and more likely than middle-or last-borns to achieve academic success. However, only children tend to have the most problems establishing close relationships and exhibit a lower need for affiliation than other children. Question 341: The word “body” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by_ . A. amount B. organization C. corpse D. skeleton Question 342: The word “key” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by . A. secret B. studied C. significant D. locked Question 343: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to . A. component B. research C. hypothesis D. personality Question 344: What is stated in paragraph 1 about Adler? A. He had found that the responses by family members had little to do with personality. B. He believed that it was the actual birth order that affected personality. C. He was one of the first to study the effect of birth order on personality. D. He was the only one to study birth order. Question 345: Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the italic sentence in paragraph 3? 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 63 Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. Because first-borns tend to be very assertive, they are uncomfortable serving in government positions. B. Several examples support the idea that first-borns have characteristics that make them leaders. C. An interesting fact that is difficult to explain is that many first-borns have served in high government positions. D. In spite of certain characteristics that first-borns possess, many of them become leaders. Question 346: The word “accepting” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to . A. respectable B. affectionate C. admissible D. tolerant Question 347: Which of the following is NOT true? A. Middle children tend to have a preference for team sports. B. First-borns tend to do well in individual sports. C. Only children tend to prefer individual over team sports. D. Last-borns tend to prefer games with fierce competition. Question 348: The phrase “more achievement oriented” in the paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to . A. more skilled as leaders B. more aware of surroundings C. more directly involved D. more focused on accomplishments 53. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks An important point to remember if you like spending time out in the open air is that the human head doesn‟t work very well outdoors if it becomes too hot, cold or wet. That‟s why a hat is a good investment, whenever you are planning to go out and about. Surprisingly, a single waterproof hat with a brim will do the (349) adequately in most conditions. In cold climates, the problem is that the head is (350) heat all the time. As much as fifty to sixty per cent of your body‟s heat is lost through the head and neck, (351) on which scientist you believe. Clearly this heat loss needs to be prevented, but it‟s important to remember that hats don‟t actually keep you warm, they simply stop heat escaping. Just as important is the need to protect your neck from the effects of bright sunlight, and the brim of your hat will do this. If you prefer a baseball cap, (352) buying one that has a drop down „tail‟ at the back to stop your neck getting sunburnt. And in wet weather (353) , hats are often more practical than pooling up the hood of your waterproof coat because when you turn your head, the hat goes with you, whereas the hood usually does 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 64 not. Question 349: A. role B. duty C. job D. task Question 350: A. giving away B. sending out C. running down D. dropping off Question 351: A. regarding B. relating C. depending D. according Question 352: A. advise B. suggest C. recommend D. consider Question 353: A. conditions B. cases C. occasions D. positions 54. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Certainly no creature in the sea is odder than the common sea cucumber. All living creature, especially human beings, have their peculiarities, but everything about the little sea cucumber seems unusual. What else can be said about a bizarre animal that, among other eccentricities, eats mud, feeds almost continuously day and night but can live without eating for long periods, and can be poisonous but is considered supremely edible by gourmets? For some fifty million years, despite all its eccentricities, the sea cucumber has subsisted on its diet of mud. It is adaptable enough to live attached to rocks by its tube feet, under rocks in shallow water, or on the surface of mud flats. Common in cool water on both Atlantic and Pacific shores, it has the ability to such up mud or sand and digest whatever nutrients are present. Sea cucumbers come in a variety of colors, ranging from black to reddish-brown to sand-color and nearly white. One form even has vivid purple tentacle. Usually the creatures are cucumber-shaped-hence their name-and because they are typically rock inhabitants, this shape, combine with flexibility, enables them to squeeze into crevices where they are safe from predators and ocean currents. Although they have voracious appetites, eating day and night, sea cucumbers have the capacity to become quiescent and live at a low metabolic rate-feeding sparingly or not at all for long periods, so that the marine organisms that provide their food have a chance to multiply. If it were not for this faculty, they would devour all the food available in a short time and would probably starve themselves out of existence. But the most spectacular thing about the sea cucumber is the way it defends itself. Its major enemies are fish and crabs, when attacked, it squirts all its internal organs into the water. It also casts off attached structures such as tentacles. The sea cucumber will eviscerate and regenerate itself if it is attached or even touched; it will do the same if the surrounding water temperature is too high or if the water becomes too polluted. Question 354: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Places where the sea cucumber can be found 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 65 B. The reason for the sea cucumber‟s name C. How to identify the sea cucumber D. What makes the sea cucumber unusual Question 355: The word “bizarre” is closest meaning to A. rare B. simple C. marine D. odd Question 356: The fourth paragraph of the passage primarily discusses A. the eating habits of sea cucumbers B. the food sources of sea cucumbers C. the reproduction of sea cucumbers D. threats to sea cucumbers‟ existence Question 357: According to the passage, why is the shape of sea cucumbers important? A. It makes them attractive to fish B. It helps them to protect themselves from danger. C. It helps them to digest their food. D. It makes it easier for them to move through the mud. Question 358: The phrase “casts off” is closest in meaning to A. gets rid of B. grows again C. grabs D. uses as a weapon Question 359: The words “this faculty” refers to the sea cucumber‟s ability to A. live at a low metabolic rate B. squeeze into crevices C. devour all available food in a short time D. suck up mud or sand Question 360: What can be inferred about the defense mechanisms of the sea cucumber? A. They are very sensitive to surrounding stimuli. B. They are almost useless. C. They are similar to those of most sea creatures. D. They require group cooperation. 55. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Thunderstorms, with their jagged bursts of lightning and roaring thunder, are actually one of nature‟s primary mechanisms for transferring heat from the surface of the earth into the atmosphere. A thunderstorm starts when low-lying pockets of warm air from the surface of the earth begin to rise. The pockets of warm air float upward through the air above that is both cooler and heavier. The rising pockets cool as their pressure decreases, and their latent heat is released above the condensation line through the formation of cumulus clouds. What will happen with these clouds depends on the temperature of the atmosphere. In winter, the air 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 66 temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is not extremely great, and the temperature of the rising air mass drops more slowly. During these colder months, the atmosphere, therefore, tends to remain rather stable. In summer, however, when there is a high accumulation of heat near the earth‟s surface, in direct contrast to the considerably colder air higher up, the temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is much more pronounced. As warm air rises in this type of environment, the temperature drops much more rapidly than it does in winter; when the temperature drops more than 4 degrees Fahrenheit per thousand feet of altitude, cumulus clouds aggregate into a single massive cumulonimbus cloud, or thunderhead. In isolation, a single thunderstorm is an impressive but fairly benign way for Mother Earth to defuse trapped heat from her surface; thunderstorms, however, can appear in concert, and the resulting show, while extremely impressive, can also prove extraordinarily destructive. When there is a large-scale collision between cold air and warm air masses during the summer months, a squall line, or series of thunderheads, may develop. It is common for a squall line to begin when an advancing cold front meets up with and forces itself under a layer of warm and moist air, creating a line of thunderstorms that races forward at speeds of approximately forty miles per hour. A squall line, which can be hundreds of miles long and can contain fifty distinct thunderheads, is a magnificent force of nature with incredible potential for destruction. Within the squall line, often near its southern end, can be found supercells, long-lived rotating storms of exceptional strength that serve as the source of tornadoes. Question 361: The topic of the passage is . A. the development of thunderstorms and squall lines B. the devastating effects of tornadoes C. cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds D. the power of tornadoes Question 362: The word “mechanisms” in paragraph 1 is most likely . A. machines B. motions C. methods D. materials Question 363: It can be inferred from the passage that, in summer, . A. there is not a great temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes B. the greater temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes makes thunderstorms more likely to occur C. there is not much cold air higher up in the atmosphere D. the temperature of rising air drops more slowly than it does in winter Question 364: The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to . A. harmless B. beneficial C. ferocious D. spectacular Question 365: The expression “in concert” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by . 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 67 A. as a chorus B. with other musicians C. as a cluster D. in a performance Question 366: The word “itself” in paragraph 3 refers to . A. a large-scale collision B. a squall line C. an advancing cold front D. a layer of warm and moist air Question 367: All of the following are mentioned in the passage about supercells EXCEPT that they . A. are of short duration B. have circling winds C. have extraordinary power D. can give birth to tornadoes Question 368: This reading would most probably be assigned in which of the following courses? A. Geography B. Meteorology C. Marine Biology D. Chemistry 56. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850‟s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860‟s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890‟s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870‟s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920‟s and 1930‟s. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 68 heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. Question 369: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage B. Commercial production of ice C. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet D. Population movements in nineteenth century Question 370: The phrase “in season” in paragraph 1 refers to A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food Question 371: The word “prevent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. estimate B. avoid C. correct D. confine Question 372: During the 1860‟s, canned food products were A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cans C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet Question 373: It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use A. before 1860 B. before 1890 C. after 1900 D. after 1920 Question 374: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances Question 375: The author implies that in the 1920‟s and 1930‟s home deliveries of ice A. decreased in number B. were on an irregular schedule C. increased in cost D. occurred only in the summer 57. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) to each of the questions Last year, there were millions of international tourist arrivals across the globe. Whether they were students on their (376) years looking for overseas adventure, stressed-out workers hoping to get away for a weekend, or retirees (377) to relax in an exotic location- clearly none of them thought they could find the same experience at home. The question is whether foreign travel brings more advantages or disadvantages. An obvious positive point is that going abroad sometimes helps people to expand their knowledge of the world. If they are (378) - minded, they can learn about new cultures and hopefully gain a more accurate understanding about their way of life. In addition, there is the economic benefit of tourism to countries which have few other resources. It can provide an income to many people within the industry. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 69 Having said that, some people simply go to a foreign resort (379) by high walls and therefore learn little about their holiday (380) . Another issue is that hordes of tourists often spoil the “unspoilt” places they visit. The most recent example of this is Antarctica, where last year cruise ships took thousands of visitors to view the disappearing icebergs and wildlife. Vegetation, nesting penguins and resting walrus are vulnerable when humans intrude. Question 376: A. space B. break C. pause D. gap Question 377: A. wish B. wished C. wishing D. to wish Question 378: A. open B. narrow C. absent D. single Question 379: A. covered B. surrounded C. sheltered D. stopped Question 380: A. direction B. destination C. departure D. situation 58. Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein. His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity. Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical application of Einstein's work. In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass. Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklind. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 70 Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research. Question 381: According to the passage l, Einstein's primary work was in the area of A. chemistry B. biology C. physics D. math Question 382: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of Einstein's discoveries? A. Radio B. Television C. Automobiles D. Computer Question 383: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except A. nationalism B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine C. atomic bomb research in the United States. D. the defeat of the Nazis. Question 384: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s? A. Switzerland B. the United States C. Germany D. Israel Question 385: The word “exalting” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. criticism B. elimination C. support D. elevation Question 386: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels A. Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views. B. Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications. C. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history. D. Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect. Question 387: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called A. electrons B. photoelectrons C. gamma rays D. quanta 59. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks Humans are destroying the earth‟s tropical rain forests. About 80,000 square kilometers are being destroyed every year. About a quarter of the (388) comes from people cutting trees for fuel. Another quarter is to make grassland for their cattle. The (389) trees are cut down to sell the wood to start farms. The population in cities all over the world is growing, and more and more wood is needed to build huge new buildings. For example, 5,000 trees from Sarawak rain forest in Malaysia were used to build just one tall building. (390) people continue cutting down that many trees in Sarawak rain forest, all the trees could be gone in eight years. The world needs more food, and it (391) like a good idea to clear the rain forests and use the land 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 71 for agriculture. Many people think that the land under these huge, thick forests must be in rich nutrients, but it isn't. This is another surprising thing about rain forests. Most of the land in tropical rain forest is very (392) . Question 388: A. destruction B. destroying C. destroy D. destructive Question 389: A. staying B. remaining C. standing D. dwelling Question 390: A. Unless B. If C. While D. Although Question 391: A. seems B. looks C. tastes D. sounds Question 392: A. short B. poor C. unfortunate D. ill 60. Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Garbage cans are not magical portals. Trash does not disappear when you toss it in a can. Yet, the average American throws away an estimated 1,600 pounds of waste each year. If there are no magic garbage fairies, where does all that trash go? There are four methods to managing waste: recycling, landfilling, composting, and incinerating. Each method has its strengths and weaknesses. Let's take a quick look at each. Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials, and lower energy use. Yet, some argue that recycling wastes energy. They believe that collecting, processing, and converting waste uses more energy than it saves. Still, most people agree that recycling is better for the planet than landfilling. Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, landfilling is when people bury garbage in a hole. Over time the practice of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before it is thrown into the hole. In this way more garbage can fit in each landfill. Large liners are placed in the bottom of landfills so that toxic garbage juice doesn't get into the ground water. Sadly, these liners don't always work. Landfills may pollute the local water supply. Not to mention that all of that garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. This makes it hard to find new locations for landfills. Compositing is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose. The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. While composting is easy to do onsite somewhere, like home or school, it's hard to do after the garbage gets all mixed up. This is because plastic and other inorganic materials must be removed from the compost pile or they will pollute the soil. There's a lot of plastic in garbage, which makes it hard to compost on a large scale. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 72 One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The first is to create or harvest a fuel from the waste, such as methane gas, and burn the fuel. The second is to burn the waste directly. The heat from the incineration process can boil water, which can power steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air. Also, some critics worry that incinerators destroy valuable resources that could be recycled. Usually, the community in which you live manages waste. Once you put your garbage in that can, what happens to it is beyond your control. But you can make choices while it is still in your possession. You can choose to recycle, you can choose to compost, or you can choose to let someone else deal with it. The choice is yours. Question 393: Which of the following serves as the best title for this passage? A. The Magic of Recycling: Bringing Back What Was Once Lost B. Recycling, Landfilling or Composing: Which is Best for You? C. Do Your Part How to Save the Earth by Recycling and Composting. D. Methods of Waste Management: Advantages and Disadvantages Question 394: According to the passage all of the following are mentioned as an issue with landfilling EXCEPT that A. landfills are smelly B. landfills may pollute the water supply C. it is difficult to find locations for landfills D. usable materials are wasted in landfills Question 395: What does the word “stinks” in paragraph 3 mean? A. smells unpleasant B. seems dirty C. looks attractive D. feels soft Question 396: Which of the following best explains why composting is not feasible on a large scale? A. People wouldn't want to touch all of that gross rotting food. B. Plastic would get into the compost and turn it into a pollutant. C. It would smell too bad in densely populated cities. D. It would attract rodents that would spread disease. Question 397: According to the passage which of the following best defines “incineration”? A. buying waste materials in a large hole B. allowing waste products to decompose and become fertilizer C. turning waste materials into products like book covers D. burning waste materials and harvesting the energy Question 398: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to A. community B. garbage C. waste D. possession Question 399: According to the passage how many main ways to incinerate waste? A. one B. three C. two D. four 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 73 Question 400: Which conclusion could be drawn from the passage? A. Recycling is without a doubt the best way to handle waste. B. Each method of waste management has its drawbacks. C. Incineration is the best way to process waste. D. All large cities should create massive compost piles. 61. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man‟s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees. Question 401: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT A. they are watchful and quiet B. they sleep during the day C. they dig home underground D. they are noisy and aggressive Question 402: We can infer from the passage that A. healthy animals live longer lives B. living things adjust to their environment C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. water is the basis of desert life Question 403: According to the passage, creatures in the desert A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals B. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest C. live in an accommodating environment 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 74 D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world Question 404: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT A. moist-skinned animals B. many large animals C. water-loving animals D. the coyote and the bobcat Question 405: The word “them” means A. animals B. minutes C. people D. water Question 406: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means A. wild B. unmanageable C. cunning D. unhealthy Question 407: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as A. water is an essential part of his existence B. very few large animals are found in the desert C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert D. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things Question 408: The title for this passage could be A. “Man‟s Life in a Desert Environment” B. “Desert Plants” C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Life Underground” 62. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 409 to 413. TATTOOING: AN ANCIENT TRADITION Tattooing is an old art. In ancient Greece, people who had tattoos were regarded as members of the upper classes. On the other hand, tattooing was (409) in Europe by the early Christians, who thought that it was a sinful thing to do. It was not until the late 18th century, when Captain Cook saw South Sea Islander decorating their bodies with tattoos that attitudes began to change. Sailors came back from these islands with pictures of Christ on their backs and from then on, tattooing (410) in popularity. A survey by the French army in 1881 showed that among the 387 men (411) _ there were 1,333 designs. Nowadays, not everybody finds tattoos acceptable. Some people thing that getting one is silly because tattoos are more or less permanent. There is also some (412) about catching a blood disease from unsterilized needles. Even for those who do want a tattoo, the process of getting one is not painless, but the final result, in their eyes, is (413) the pain. Question 409: A. exported B. finished C. banned D. blamed Question 410: A. gained B. won C. earned D. made Question 411: A. inquired B. questioned C. spoken D. demanded 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 75 Question 412: A. trouble B. danger C. concern D. threat Question 413: A. worth B. owed C. due D. deserved 63. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives. Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job. Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people‟s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers. Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person‟s experiences. There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation - that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning include learning languages, concepts, and motor skills. (Extracted from Microsoft® Student 2009 – DVD Version) 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 76 Question 414: Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as examples of . A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves B. the ways people‟s lives are influenced by education C. the changes to which people have to orient themselves D. the areas of learning which affect people‟s lives Question 415: According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of? A. Acquisition of social and behavioural skills B. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom C. Acquisition of academic knowledge D. Knowledge acquisition and ability development Question 416: According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom? A. literacy and calculation B. right from wrong C. life skills D. interpersonal communication Question 417: The passage mainly discusses . A. practical examples of learning inside the classroom B. simple forms of learning C. application of learning principles to formal education D. general principles of learning Question 418: It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to . A. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning B. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest C. thoroughly understand the behaviours of the objects of their interest D. change the behaviours of the objects of their interest towards learning Question 419: According to the passage, the study of learning is important in many fields due to . A. the need for certain experiences in various areas B. the exploration of the best teaching methods C. the influence of various behaviours in the learning process D. the great influence of the on-going learning process Question 420: The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to . A. recovers B. creates C. generates D. gains 64. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 421 to 427. 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 77 Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name was originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated to Albany, New York where Duncan‟s father opened a cabinetmaking shop. Duncan followed his father‟s footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing his training, Duncan moved to New York City. Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture “joiner” in business at 2 Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name to Phyfe. He was a quiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his new name would probably appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British in this post-Revolutionary War period. Duncan Phyfe‟s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spelling helped him better compete with French emigrant craftsmen, his new name had more to do with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop. The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. They were no longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in history, a man learned that by working hard, he could build his business based on his own name and reputation and quality of work. Phyfe‟s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employed 100 craftsmen. Some economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of labor and an assembly line. What his workshop produced shows Phyfe‟s absolute dedication to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best available materials. He was reported to have paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log. Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period‟s classical styles, Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, Phyfe‟s high quality craftsmanship established him as America‟s patriotic interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries. Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe‟s workshop is enormous, comparatively few marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctions, collectors have paid $11,000 for a card table, $24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a sewing table. Question 421: What is the main idea of the passage? A. The business of cabinetmaking. B. The significance of Duncan Phyfe‟s name. C. Duncan Phyfe‟s life and career. D. Duncan Phyfe‟s cabinetmaking designs. Question 422: According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply? A. Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name. B. Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland. C. Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business. D. Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables. Question 423: Which choice does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to? 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 78 A. His spelling B. His chair C. His French D. His name Question 424: Which choice is closest in meaning to the word “guild” in paragraph 4? A. Verdict of a jury B. Organization of craftsmen C. Political party of emigrants D. Immigrants‟ club Question 425: In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT . A. division of labor B. an assembly line C. continental designs D. the least expensive materials Question 426: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe‟s death? A. He died in the eighteenth century. B. He died in Albany. C. He died in the nineteenth century. D. He died in Scotland. Question 427: The author implies that . A. furniture from Duncan Phyfe‟s workshop no longer exists. B. furniture from Duncan Phyfe‟s workshop costs a lot of money today. C. furniture from Duncan Phyfe‟s workshop was ignored by New Yorkers. D. furniture from Duncan Phyfe‟s workshop was made by his father. 65. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 428 to 432. A rainbow is an optical display of color that usually appears in the sky when a beam of sunlight refracts through millions of raindrops. Each (428) color from the spectrum is then sent to your eyes. For this to happen, the angle between the ray of light, the raindrop and the human eye must be between 40 and 42 degrees. After studying rainbows in (429) , Sir Isaac Newton was able to explain how they are formed. However, he was color blind, so he had to rely on the eyes of his assistant, who could easily (430) all the seven colors: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. His assistant could also clearly tell the difference between indigo and violet. There are two types of rainbows. Primary rainbows are the most common and have the most distinctive colors, with red appearing on the outside of the arc and violet on the inside. Secondary rainbows are unusual because the light is reflected twice within the raindrop before it (431) a rainbow, so the colors are in reverse order and not as bright as primary rainbows. There is a popular myth that if you reach the end of a rainbow, you will find a pot of gold waiting for you. In fact, it is impossible to do this, because a rainbow has no end - as you go towards the point where the rainbow seems to touch the ground, it moves away from you as quickly as you (432) . 102 BÀI ĐỌC HIỂU TỪ CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN Page 79 """